This sounds like a really daft question, but I am trying to clarify details on foundations on thermodynamics to myself, which will involve asking really (seemingly) basic things.
When you have two systems with a diathermal (heat and work permitting) boundary between the two systems, we know the two will spontaneously tend towards thermal equilibrium.
Is this type of statement part of any of the laws of thermodynamics or is it an implicit assumption? There are two candidates for me to look for.
- Second Law. A paraphrase of the Clausius statement says, "Heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder location to a hotter location." This doesn't qualify, because this says what heat cannot do, it does not say what heat does do! I am looking for a positive statement of the form, "Heat spontaneously flows from a hotter location to a colder location if the two locations are separated by a diathermal boundary." The Clausius statement is not this.
- Zeroth Law. This seem like another candidate that would satisfy me, but all it says is that the relation of thermal equilibrium is a transitive relation. It doesn't say anything about the behavior of heat flow per se.
So I am wondering if the statement, "Heat spontaneously flows from a hotter location to a colder location if the two locations are separated by a diathermal boundary" is either (a) an axiom explicitly stated somewhere, (b) an assumption not explicitly stated but is used anyways, or (c) a theorem that can be derived from other laws of thermodynamics.
(Perhaps one could argue it's in the very definition of "thermal equilibrium" but I would take that to mean that (b) is the case.)