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let's consider the expression, where $u^\mu$ is the tangent vector to the geodesic

$\theta = \nabla_\mu u^\mu$....scalar $\Rightarrow$ valid in every coordinate system

So in flat space in Cartesian coordinates, $\theta = 0$ since we know $u^\mu$ needs to be a constant since a geodesic in flat space is just a straight line, and the Christoffel-connections vanish identically.

Let's now consider the Schwarzschild (SS) metric in common coordinates. $ds^2 = - f(r) dt^2 + 1/f(r) dr^2 + r^2 d\Omega^2$ with $f(r) = 1-2M/r$ The solution of the geodesic-equation in SS-coordinates for the $r$-component is; $u_r(r) = \sqrt{ 2E + 2M/r - L^2/r^2 + 2ML^2/r^3}$

now for $M \rightarrow 0$ we are again in flat space since $f(r) \rightarrow 1$ and therefore $ds^2 = - dt^2 + dr^2 + r^2 d\Omega^2$ which is just the Minkowski-metric in spherical coordinates.

$u_r(r)$ takes the form $\sqrt{2E}$ where I have set $L=0$ (this is an easier case, but this still needs to be true. I am just considering radial motion) because of $u^\mu u_\mu = -1 $ you get for $u_t = \sqrt{2E+1}$.

So in principle $u^\mu = (u_t, u_r, 0,0)$ should be a straight line per constructionem because we are in flat space.

Inserting those results into the divergence relation, $\theta = \nabla_\mu u^\mu$, gives a non-vanishing result. Which is a contradiction.

I would be very thankful if you could answer the following questions:

  • What causes this inconsistency?
  • If the $M\rightarrow0$ limit is not legit, tell me why?
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    $\begingroup$ Your expression for $\theta$ is the divergence of the vector field $u$, which doesn't make much sense as you have defined $u$ to be a tangent vector to a single curve. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 10 at 15:58
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    $\begingroup$ A curve being a straight line does not imply that its tangent vector is constant. The additional condition of affine parameterization is needed. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 10 at 16:02
  • $\begingroup$ Why should it not make any sense, $u$ is defined by $u^\mu \nabla_\mu u^\nu = 0$ $\endgroup$
    – Coderboy
    Commented Apr 10 at 16:22
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    $\begingroup$ May you show the form of the common-coordinate Schwarzchild metric you are using, as well as how you calculated $\nabla_\mu u^\mu$? $\endgroup$
    – user399674
    Commented Apr 10 at 17:52
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    $\begingroup$ @Coderboy It is still a straight line. Also you haven't answered my first question. How exactly are you computing $\theta$? As I have said at the beginning, the divergence requires $u$ to be defined on an open neighborhood of the point. It is insufficient for it to just be defined along a curve. You haven't defined a vector field at all, just a tangent vector to a curve. Along the curve, the operator $\nabla$ is undefined. You can only use $u^\nu \nabla_\nu$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 10 at 20:47

3 Answers 3

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You have made some major mathematical mistakes. There is actually no contradiction here at all. You have only defined $\mathbf{u}$ to be the tangent vector to a curve in the manifold $M$, which means that $\mathbf{u}$ is only defined on (the image of) the curve in $M$. You cannot take its divergence (in $M$) as it requires $\mathbf{u}$ to be a vector field, i.e. to be defined on an open subset of $M$. Therefore, in order to take its divergence, you need to define a vector field, say $\mathbf{v}$, on a larger domain such that the restriction of $\mathbf{v}$ to (the image of) the curve equals $\mathbf{u}$.

From what I gathered from the comments, you seem to be defining $\mathbf{v}$ by "copying" the components of $\mathbf{u}$. This does not work in general as there is no canonical way (such as function composition) to get a function $v^\mu (x)$ from $u^\mu (x(\tau))$ because the function $x(\tau)$ is almost always non-invertible. It only happens to work with your example because the components of $\mathbf{u}$ are constant i.e. independent of $\tau$.

The problem is that your definition of $\mathbf{v}$ is dependent on the choice of coordinates because the basis vectors depend on the coordinates. What you are really doing is defining two different vector fields $\mathbf{v}_1 = a\mathbf{e}_t + b\mathbf{e}_x$ and $\mathbf{v}_2 = a\mathbf{e}_t + b\mathbf{e}_r$, where $(a,b,0,0)$ are the original constant components of $\mathbf{u}$. You can readily check that both of them restrict to the same $\mathbf{u}$ on your radial geodesic, which I have taken to coincide spatially with the $x$-axis.

Therefore, there is simply no reason to expect them to have the same divergence. $\mathbf{v}_1$ is a constant vector field while $\mathbf{v}_2$ is a radial vector field. There is no contradiction here.

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The real question is, "what exactly is a divergence?" The physical meaning of the divergence of a point particle's geodesic doesn't make sense. A divergence is meaningful for a vector field, for example the velocity field of an incompressible fluid. A velocity field moving radial outward from the origin does indeed have a non-zero divergence. Let's take a closer look.

A vanishing divergence for $\hat{x}$ motion

In Minkowski space in cartesian coordinates all of the Christoffel symbols are zero. For a velocity vector aligned with the $x$-axis, $\vec{u}\rightarrow(u^t, u^x, 0, 0)$: $$ \nabla_\alpha u^{\alpha} = \partial_\alpha u^\alpha + {\Gamma^\alpha}_{\alpha\beta}u^\beta = \partial_\alpha u^\alpha.$$ This relation holds even if $\vec{u}$ is not a geodesic of the spacetime. In the case that $\vec{u}$ is a Minkowski geodesic (constant velocity), this vanishes.

If we interpret $\vec{u}$ as a uniform velocity field for a fluid, this makes sense. All of the fluid flows in the same direction, not spreading out. If we pick an arbitrary cartesian direction for the velocity $\vec{u}\rightarrow(u^t, u^x, u^y, u^z)$, nothing really changes. The fluid still all flows in the same direction, just some diagonal direction.

A non-zero divergence for $\hat{r}$ motion

In Schwarzschild space the Christoffel symbols are non-zero, but if you take the limit $M\rightarrow0$ some of them will vanish leaving the Christoffel symbols for Minkowski space in spherical coordinates.

Let's calculate a divergence assuming a radial velocity, $\vec{u}\rightarrow(u^t, u^r, 0, 0)$: $$\begin{align} \nabla_\alpha u^{\alpha} &= \partial_\alpha u^\alpha + {\Gamma^\alpha}_{\alpha\beta}u^\beta \\ &= \partial_\alpha u^\alpha + {\Gamma^t}_{tr}u^r +{\Gamma^r}_{rr}u^r +{\Gamma^\theta}_{\theta r}u^r +{\Gamma^\phi}_{\phi r}u^r \\ &= \partial_\alpha u^\alpha + \frac{2}{r}u^r. \end{align}$$

There are four non-zero Christoffel symbols of the Schwarzshild metric that appear in the sum. You can look them up and see that two vanish in the limit of $M\rightarrow 0$. As pointed out in a comment, the ${\Gamma^\theta}_{\theta r}$ and ${\Gamma^\phi}_{\phi r}$ do not vanish, leaving an extra term.

This is the usual result for the divergence in spherical coordinates. The $r$-part of the divergence is: $$\frac{1}{r^2}\partial_r(r^2 u^r) = \frac{r^2}{r^2} \partial_r u^r + \frac{2r}{r^2} u^r = \partial_r u^r + \frac{2}{r}u^r.$$ If we had kept the $u^\theta$ and $u^\phi$ parts of the of the velocity vector there would be additional non-vanishing Christoffel's giving the rest of the usual divergence equation (modulo the non-normalized basis vectors in Schwarzschild coordinates compared to the spherical coordinates used in E&M).

So what does an $\hat{r}$ aligned velocity mean? At all points in space the velocity field points radially outward. When a fluid moves radially outward, each streamline points a different direction. This velocity field is physically different than the $\hat{x}$ aligned one from before. Far from the origin $r\rightarrow\infty$, neighboring streamlines barely spread out at all. At the origin the divergence blows up, telling us there must be a source of the flow there.

In order to make a parallel, divergenceless flow in spherical coordinates we need to transform the $\hat{x}$ aligned flow to spherical coordinates for all points in space. This would result in many places having local velocity vectors that have non-zero $u^\theta$ and $u^\phi$.

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  • $\begingroup$ $\Gamma^\phi\,_{\phi r} = 1/r$ so the connections will not vanish, your calculation is wrong $\endgroup$
    – Coderboy
    Commented Apr 10 at 18:28
  • $\begingroup$ I've updated the answer to give a conceptual explanation for the difference. $\endgroup$
    – Paul T.
    Commented Apr 10 at 20:58
  • $\begingroup$ Anyway, $\theta$ is a scalar. So it must be valid in every coordinate system. So if $u$ solvest he geodesic eq. Then $\theta$ also needs to be 0 in spherical coordinates in flat space $\endgroup$
    – Coderboy
    Commented Apr 11 at 9:04
  • $\begingroup$ Your two calculations are about physically different things. Each is a scalar, and each is valid in every coordinate system for the given physical scenario. The problem is that they are two physically different scalars. $\endgroup$
    – Paul T.
    Commented Apr 11 at 19:59
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So in principle $u^\mu = (u_t, u_r, 0,0)$ should be a straight line per constructionem because we are in flat space.

And it is. All the covariant derivatives with respect to $r$ of this vector are zero. That is: the vector doesn't change following the radial path.

Inserting those results into the divergence relation, $\theta = > \nabla_\mu u^\mu$, gives a non-vanishing result. Which is a contradiction.

It only gives a non-vanishing result if we assume that the partial derivatives $\frac{\partial u^{\theta}}{\partial \theta}$ and $\frac{\partial u^{\phi}}{\partial \phi}$ are zero. But in this case we are changing the vector. When a radial vector remains radial after a small angular variation this vector is changed. And if it is not the same vector, it belongs to another geodesic not parallel to the first one. As explained in the other answers, the scalar quantity has a meaning if we suppose a flow of parallel particles. In a Minkowski space-time they remain parallel when following its geodesics.

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