In this question the people who answered helped me validate my understanding of the $\vec\omega$ vector, the angular velocity of a particle or a rigid object.
I would now like to add the angular acceleration $\vec\alpha$ into the mix, and validate my understanding.
This question assumes that a rigid body, or a particle, is rotating in any arbitrary way around some axis. It may also be moving translationally.
It is now my understanding that $\vec\omega$ is always parallel to the current plane of rotation. So if we define the z axis to be the axis of rotation at all points in time (which my textbook seems to do), $\vec\omega$ only has a component in the z axis. The two other components are always 0.
Thus, $\vec\omega$ can always be written like so for any point in time $t$:
$\vec\omega(t) = (0, 0, \omega_z(t))$
It follows that the angular acceleration $\vec\alpha$, which is the time derivative of $\vec\omega$ can always be described as:
$\vec\alpha(t) = d(\vec\omega)/dt = (0, 0, d(\omega_z)/dt) = (0, 0, \alpha_z(t))$
Meaning - $\vec\alpha$ also has a component only in the z direction.
All of the above implies that for any point in time $t$ the following holds:
- $\omega$ (the magnitude of $\vec\omega$) = $\omega_z$
- $\alpha$ (the magnitude of $\vec\omega$) = $\alpha_z$
So my questions would be:
Is my understanding so far accurate? I realize that this is basic stuff - and so I would like to build confidence regarding this
My textbook often assumes that the derivative of $\omega$ is $\alpha$, and that $\int\alpha dt = \omega$ (note - these are magnitudes, not vectors). Is this always correct? We know that the derivative of a magnitude of a vector isn't necessarily equal to the magnitude of the derivative. However - it seems that all of the above implies that this relationship does hold in the case of $\omega$ and $\alpha$. Am I right?