I am reading An Modern Introduction to Quantum Field Theory by Maggiore. On page 28, it says
Using the property of the Pauli matrices $\sigma^2 \sigma^i \sigma^2 = -\sigma^{i*}$ and the explicit form of $\Lambda_{L,R}$, it is easy to show that $$ \sigma^2 \Lambda^*_L \sigma^2 = \Lambda_R. $$ From this it follows that $$ \sigma^2 \psi^*_L \rightarrow \sigma^2(\Lambda_L \psi_L)^∗ = (\sigma^2 \Lambda^*_L \sigma^2)\sigma^2 \psi_L^∗ = \Lambda_R(\sigma^2 \psi_L^∗ ), $$ where we used the fact that $\sigma^2\sigma^2 = 1$.
My questions are:
- why is $(\Lambda_L \psi_L)^∗ = \Lambda^*_L \psi_L^∗$? I thought the rule was $(AB)^* = A^*B^*$.
- What's point of taking the complex conjugate of Pauli matrices? It is Hermitian.
The author gave their definition of Pauli matrices in the previous section by: $$ \sigma^1 = \pmatrix{0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0},\quad \sigma^2 = \pmatrix{0 & -i \\ i & 0} ,\quad \sigma^3 = \pmatrix{1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1}. $$
For my second question and the property mentioned in my quote, I assume the Pauli matrices here were anti-hermitian. The author might have redefined it, but I couldn't find it. I also wonder when we should make the Pauli matrices anti-Hermitian, which I assume was obtained by multiplying the matrices by a factor of $i$.