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One consequence of electromagnetic duality (see e.g., https://doi.org/10.1038/s41467-023-36420-4) is that if we have a system described by permittivity and permeability profile $(\varepsilon, \mu)(\mathbf{r})$ that has an eigensolution with associated electric and magnetic fields $(\mathbf{E}, \mathbf{H})(\mathbf{r})$, then the "dual" problem $$ (\varepsilon', \mu') = (\mu, \varepsilon) $$ will have an eigensolution ($Z_0 = \sqrt{\mu_0/\varepsilon_0}$) $$ (\mathbf{E}', \mathbf{H}') = (Z_0\mathbf{H}, -Z_0^{-1}\mathbf{E}). $$

While I can reconcile this with Maxwell's equations, I'm having trouble reconciling it with the respectively vectorial and pseudovectorial transformation properties of $\mathbf{E}$ and $\mathbf{H}$ under spatial transformations.

In particular: suppose there is an affine transformation (i.e., proper or improper rotation) $R$ with matrix form $\mathbf{R}$ acting on the fields. We know that it acts on $\mathbf{E}(\mathbf{r})$ and $\mathbf{H}(\mathbf{r})$ in different ways since one is a vector and the other a pseudovector: $$ R \mathbf{E}(\mathbf{r}) = (\mathbf{R}\mathbf{E})(\mathbf{R}^{-1}\mathbf{r}),\\ R \mathbf{H}(\mathbf{r}) = \det(\mathbf{R})(\mathbf{R}\mathbf{H})(\mathbf{R}^{-1}\mathbf{r}). $$

Now, if I try to apply these rules to the dual solutions $(\mathbf{E}', \mathbf{H}')$ I become confused. Because, on one hand (first applying the transformation rule, then using duality): $$ R \mathbf{E}'(\mathbf{r}) = (\mathbf{R}\mathbf{E}')(\mathbf{R}^{-1}\mathbf{r}) = Z_0(\mathbf{R}\mathbf{H})(\mathbf{R}^{-1}\mathbf{r}) $$ but on the other hand (first using duality, then applying the transformation rule): $$ R \mathbf{E}'(\mathbf{r}) = Z_0 R\mathbf{H}(\mathbf{r}) = Z_0\det(\mathbf{R})(\mathbf{R}\mathbf{H})(\mathbf{R}^{-1}\mathbf{r}). $$ So... which is it?

More broadly, I'm trying to understand how in one sense duality is placing the electric and magnetic fields on the same footing - and in another sense, they are endowed with different transformation rules. I.e., why is one a vector and the other a pseudovector? Similarly, how to think about the Lorentz force equation under duality transformations?

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  • $\begingroup$ You are asking several questions, IMHO. Why are electric and magnetic fields transforming differently? I would probably derive this from showing that four-current (charge and current density) transform as a four-vector, at least of a point charge, which, through Maxwells Equations, forces electric and magnetic fields transform the way the do. $\endgroup$
    – Cryo
    Commented Feb 12 at 23:00
  • $\begingroup$ Regarding your transformation question. I would note that rotations are orthogonal transformations, so $det\left(\mathbf{R}\right)=1$. So I would expect electric and magnetic fields to transform the same way under rotations. Things change when you start looking at inversions/reflections that have determinant of -1 $\endgroup$
    – Cryo
    Commented Feb 12 at 23:02
  • $\begingroup$ Finally, I have not used duality much in this context, but I would note that not every single-dimensional number need be a scalar. Charge density is a scalar number, yet you need to transform it carefully when you change coordinates. In order to respect parity transformations of electromagnetic fields, you may well find that impedance may also need to transform like a relative scalar $\endgroup$
    – Cryo
    Commented Feb 12 at 23:09
  • $\begingroup$ @Cryo: Of course, the question is only relevant for improper rotations, agree. The more specific context for my question is trying to prove the invariance of symmetry eigenvalues $x(g) = \langle \mathbf{B}|g\mathbf{H}\rangle = \langle\mathbf{D}|g\mathbf{E}\rangle$ under duality transformations, i.e., that $x(g) = x'(g)$ (again, for improper $g$; for proper $g$, it follows readily). $\endgroup$
    – daysofsnow
    Commented Feb 13 at 8:54
  • $\begingroup$ On re-reading my question, I see that the original wording of "[...] rotation $R$ [...]" could lead to confusion, suggesting that I only cared about proper rotations: I've edited the question to clarify that I intend any affine transformation. $\endgroup$
    – daysofsnow
    Commented Feb 13 at 9:01

1 Answer 1

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Both are solutions. If $(\mathbf{E},\mathbf{H})$ is a solution, then so is $(-\mathbf{E},-\mathbf{H})$. Thus, $\mathbf{E}'=-Z_0\mathbf{H}$, $\mathbf{H}'=Z_0^{-1}\mathbf{E}$ is also a solution.

On your broader question, the way to understand it is to recognise that the electromagnetic field is a bivector (a plane element with orientation an magnitude, in the same way a vector is a line element), with six basis components, one for each pair of spacetime coordinates.

I'm going to use the (Clifford) spacetime algebra approach described in "Spacetime Algebra as a Powerful Tool for Electromagnetism" by Dressel, Bliokh, and Nori. This gives a detailed description of the duality symmetry, which turns out to be a continuous $U(1)$ symmetry that includes both the above solutions. Spacetime algebra is (perhaps unfortunately) not the mainstream way of doing it, but I find it a lot clearer in terms of developing a geometric intuition for what it all means.

This answer is only a brief outline sketch - for the details and a much better explanation, see Dressel, Bliokh, and Nori.

We have a basis for the space of bivectors: $\gamma_{xt}$, $\gamma_{yt}$, $\gamma_{zt}$, $\gamma_{yz}$, $\gamma_{xz}$, $\gamma_{xy}$. Because Gibbs' vector algebra can't handle bivectors, we can split this into temporal and spatial components by multiplying the whole thing by the constant basis vector along the time axis $\gamma_t$, which is equivalent to picking a reference frame to observe the field from. Then the temporal components $\gamma_{xt}$, $\gamma_{yt}$, $\gamma_{zt}$ turn into a vector with basis $\gamma_{x}$, $\gamma_{y}$, $\gamma_{z}$, which turns out to be the electric field, and the spatial components $\gamma_{yz}$, $\gamma_{xz}$, $\gamma_{xy}$ turn into the trivector basis $\gamma_{yzt}$, $\gamma_{xzt}$, $\gamma_{xyt}$. Finally, we dualise the trivector into its orthogonal complement (which can be done in this algebra by multiplying by the pseudoscalar $I=\gamma_{xyzt}$), getting a pseudovector $\gamma_{x}$, $\gamma_{y}$, $\gamma_{z}$, and this is the magnetic field.

What happens if we reflect our bivector basis in the $x$ axis? The terms with an $x$ component flip sign, so we have $-\gamma_{xt}$, $\gamma_{yt}$, $\gamma_{zt}$, $\gamma_{yz}$, $-\gamma_{xz}$, $-\gamma_{xy}$. That is, in the temporal part only the $x$ axis of the electric field flips, but in the spatial part the $y$ and $z$ components of the magnetic field flip. This is why the electric field transforms like a vector, and the magnetic field like a pseudovector, even though they are components of the same structure, and on an equal footing.

Multiplying by $e^{\theta I}$ for real numbers $\theta$ gives another solution. Setting $\theta=-\pi/2$ gives the familiar duality transformation you started with. Using $\theta=\pi/2$ gives the other solution. Essentially, the reason for the flip is that the pseudoscalar $I$ used to generate the orthogonal complement is transformed by a reflection to $-I$. The confusion arises entirely because of our efforts to represent a bivector structure in Gibbs' vector algebra.

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't fully understand your first sentence: whether both $\mathbf{E}$ and $-\mathbf{E}$ are solutions has no impact on the transformation under an improper rotation (i.e., the overall sign-changes in the duality mapping are of no consequence)? The spacetime algebra approach is interesting - thanks - but I admit, I'm looking for the simplest possible perspective on this, and a (to me) completely new framework to approach E&M is a bit beyond that. $\endgroup$
    – daysofsnow
    Commented Feb 19 at 16:05

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