At Srednicki after eq. (4.10), we have a discussion about that the time ordering operation. Have to be frame inv. I.e it has to be LI. He wrote that for timelike separation we don't have to worry about the frame dependent of the time ordering. But, for spacelike separation, we have to take the Hamiltonian to be commutive at different times so that the time ordering will be redundant. My question is: Why at spacelike separation the time ordering operation. Can be frame dependent?
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2$\begingroup$ Welcome to Physics.SE. Please don't use non-standard abbreviations and acronyms like "ope.", "inv." and "LI". $\endgroup$– md2perpeCommented Jan 23 at 18:36
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$\begingroup$ in one frame, event A can happen before event B, but in another frame, it can be after. Center your frame at A and have B space like separated and in the past of A, boose so that B moves along a hyperbola until it goes to the future of A. $\endgroup$– Toyesh JayaswalCommented Jan 24 at 0:45
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