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I am reading James P. Sethna, Statistical Mechanics : Entropy, Order Parameters, and Complexity, p.137 and stuck at some equality. I think that this question is like homework-question ( In fact this is more of a mathematical question ) but even if I think about it alone, I can't really understand why that equality is true. So please understanding.

Let me present his argument in p.137 about Canonical distribution.

Canonical Distribution. The canonical distribution is a mixture of the energy eigenstates $|E_n\rangle$ with Boltzmann weights $\operatorname{exp}(-\beta E_n)$. Hence the (canonical) density matrix $\rho_{\operatorname{canon}}$ is diagonal in the energy basis :

$$\rho_{\operatorname{canon}}=\sum_{n} \frac{\operatorname{exp}(-\beta E_n)}{Z}|E_n\rangle \langle E_n|. $$

We can write the canonical density matrix in a basis-independent form using the Hamiltonian operator $\mathcal{H}$. First, the parition function is given by the trace

$$ Z=\sum_n\operatorname{exp}(-\beta E_n)= \sum_n \langle E_n| \operatorname{exp}(-\beta\mathcal{H})|E_n \rangle = \operatorname{Tr}(\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})).$$

Second, the numerator

$$\sum_n |E_n \rangle \operatorname{exp}(-\beta E_n)\langle E_n| =\sum_n|E_n \rangle \operatorname{exp}(-\beta\mathcal{H})\langle E_n| \stackrel{?}{=} \operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H}) $$

since $\mathcal{H}$ ( and thus $\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})$ ) is diagonal in the 'energy basis'. Hence

$$ \rho_{\operatorname{canon}} = \frac{\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})}{\operatorname{Tr}(\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H}))} .$$

I don't understand why the second equality marked by the question symbol is true.

By 'energy basis' above, I understand this term as existing basis consisting of eigen vectors of $\mathcal{H}$ (true?). Since $\mathcal{H}$ is hermitian, this kind of eigenvectors exists. And the matrix representation of $\mathcal{H}$ with respect to this basis is a diagonal matrix whose entries consisting of eigenvalues ( energies ? ) But I don't make sure that the matrix representation of $\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})$ with respect to the basis is also diagonal. We can't ensure that $\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})$ is also hermitian so it doesn't gaurantee the existence of basis consisting of eigenvectors ( of $\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})$ ). Can someone arrange this mathematical issue more clean?

Now, let's go to next step. Assume that $\operatorname{exp}(-\beta \mathcal{H})$ is diagonal in the energy basis. Then why the question mark is true? What the notation $\sum_n|E_n \rangle \operatorname{exp}(-\beta\mathcal{H})\langle E_n| $ exactly means? I think that I saw that kind of form in Quantum mechanics course, matrix mechanics etc.. but I don't remember its exact definition well.

I examined some example but I think that this example is not consistent well with the above equality. Example that I examined is as follows. Let $L_A : R^2 \to R^2 $ be a operator given by a matrix $A := \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 3 \\ 4 & 2 \end{pmatrix} $, $v_1 := \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix}$, and $v_2 := \begin{pmatrix} 3 \\ 4 \end{pmatrix}$. Then through some calculation, we can show that $\beta := \{ v_1, v_2\}$ is an ordered basis for $R^2$ consisting of eigenvectors of $L_A$, and $[L_A]_{\beta} = \begin{pmatrix} -2 & 0 \\ 0 & 5 \end{pmatrix} $, which is diagonalized matrix.

But, if my calculation is correct(?), neither $ \begin{pmatrix} v_1 \\ v_2 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} -2 & 0 \\ 0 & 5 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} v_1 & v_2 \end{pmatrix} $ nor $ \begin{pmatrix} v_1 & v_2 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} -2 & 0 \\ 0 & 5 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} v_1 \\ v_2 \end{pmatrix} $ is equal to $\begin{pmatrix} -2 & 0 \\ 0 & 5 \end{pmatrix}$.

Where did problem occur? Again, what is the exact definition for $\sum_n|E_n \rangle \operatorname{exp}(-\beta\mathcal{H})\langle E_n| $? Can anyone helps?

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    $\begingroup$ The middle term in the marked equation does not make sense. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 20, 2023 at 11:24

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The author is just choosing a basis for the Hilbert space and sloppily (though not uncommonly) using $H$ to denote both the operator and the eigenvalue.

To make things clear here, I use hats for operators. Let $|{E_n}\rangle$ be a complete set of orthonormal $\hat{H}$ eigenstates. Then

$$ e^{-\beta \hat{H}} = \sum_{n,m} |E_n\rangle\langle E_n| e^{-\beta \hat{H}} |E_m\rangle\langle E_m| $$ $$ = \sum_{n,m} |E_n\rangle\langle E_n|E_m\rangle e^{-\beta E_m} \langle E_m| $$ $$ = \sum_{n} |E_n\rangle e^{-\beta E_n} \langle E_n|\hspace{2em} \left(= \sum_{n} |E_n\rangle e^{-\beta H} \langle E_n| \right) $$

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  • $\begingroup$ Wow, I got it. Such a trick, using the completeness, one of key point. And thanks for correction. $\endgroup$
    – Plantation
    Commented Aug 20, 2023 at 11:51
  • $\begingroup$ Uhm. Perhaps can I ask more mathematical question for making certainly sure? For hermitian operator $\hat{H}$, its eigenvectors forms a complete (maximal) orthonormal sets in the domain ( Hilbert space ) of $\hat{H}$? Or at least such eigenvectors ( forming complete orthonormal set ) exists? $\endgroup$
    – Plantation
    Commented Aug 20, 2023 at 12:20
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    $\begingroup$ As long as $H$ is self adjoint and bounded (in the functional analysis sense), then yes by the spectral theorem. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 20, 2023 at 20:08
  • $\begingroup$ I think that 'compact' operator, instead of 'bounded' operator, is more proper. Anyway thanks for reference ! $\endgroup$
    – Plantation
    Commented Aug 21, 2023 at 0:16

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