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I was doing a question where the solution said this:

$$\vec F = q (\vec v \times \vec B)$$

$$m \vec a= q (\vec v \times \vec B)$$

$$ \therefore \vec a \cdot \vec B = 0 $$

$$(x\hat i + 7 \hat j) \cdot (7 \hat i - 3 \hat j)=0 $$

$$7x-21=0$$

$$x=3$$

Please explain why does the $\vec v \times \vec B$ turn into $\vec a \cdot \vec B$, should it be $\vec a \times \vec B$ cause like $\vec v$ & $\vec a$ are also perpendicular to $\vec B$

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't see where your $x$ comes from though. Are you missing an $x$ in the original equation? $\endgroup$
    – RC_23
    Commented Jun 22, 2023 at 6:30
  • $\begingroup$ @RC_23 x is coefficient of the icap of the a vector $\endgroup$
    – VBRAIN
    Commented Jun 22, 2023 at 6:31
  • $\begingroup$ Ok. I recommend you examine the math coding I did by editing the question, and add that x in yourself. It's not difficult $\endgroup$
    – RC_23
    Commented Jun 22, 2023 at 6:33
  • $\begingroup$ @RC_23 Done thanks! $\endgroup$
    – VBRAIN
    Commented Jun 22, 2023 at 6:43

1 Answer 1

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It's a property of vectors.

The cross product of two vectors $\vec v \times \vec B$ will always be perpendicular to both of the original vectors $\vec v$ and $\vec B$.

Because of this $\vec a$ is perpendicular to $\vec B$. This in turn implies that the dot product $\vec a \cdot \vec B$ is zero.

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