Context
From various sources of Acoustics (such as "Acoustics - An Introduction to Its Physical Principles and Applications" by Allan D. Pierce and "Fundamentals of General Linear Acoustics" by Finn Jacobsen and Peter Møller Juhl) we know that the for an idealised monopole, infinitesimally small point source the pressure at a distance $r$ from the source (assuming it is situated in the origin) is
$$ p \left( r, t \right) = \frac{j \omega \rho Q}{4 \pi r} e^{j \left( \omega t - k r \right)} \tag{1} \label{1} $$
where $t$ denotes time, $j$ the imaginary unit for which $j^{2} = -1$ is true, $\omega$ the radial frequency which is $\omega = 2 \pi f$ with $f$ being the temporal frequency. $Q$ is the "source strength" which has units of volume velocity (surface times velocity) and $k$ is the wavenumber which is given by $k = \frac{\omega}{c} = \frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}$ where $c$ is the speed of propagation (speed of sound) and $\lambda$ the wavelength.
Question
In general the pressure as given by equation \eqref{1} is a complex quantity. Even more, the constant quantity, which will call "Amplitude" for the purpose of this question, given by $A = \frac{j \omega \rho Q}{4 \pi r}$ is a purely imaginary number.
The question that arises is whether there is any physical meaning associated with the imaginary nature of the amplitude $A$ or even the complex nature of the pressure given by equation \eqref{1}.
Furthermore, in the second textbook cited above ("Fundamentals of General Linear Acoustics") it is stated that we could potentially normalise the product in the numerator of $A$ to equal $1$ such that $j \omega \rho Q = 1$. For this to happen $Q$ would have to be imaginary, since the other two quantities are purely real. Is there any physical meaning to that? Is this somehow related to the general context presented above?