-2
$\begingroup$

If gravitational waves interfere with each other, and gravity is the warping of spacetime by the presence of matter, wouldn't thus waves cause the interference patterns seen in the double slit experiment and explain other quantum phenomena? All particles should warp space time, even by a little bit, thus gravity waves could be the wave in Bohmian mechanics. Why is this wrong? 

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Interference is the absence of self-interaction in linear systems. Gravitational waves are only showing interference in the weak field regime. At their source (black hole mergers etc.) their behavior is much more complicated. The diffraction pattern of the double slit is nothing else than the optical image of the double slit under coherent illumination. That is in no way different from you looking at a Matisse, for instance. If you are finding the double slit image strange, then a painting by a famous painter should drive you crazy. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 12, 2023 at 16:17

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

There are a number of issues with your hypothesis (which I consider speculation):

  1. Gravity is far too weak to vary enough at the microscopic level to explain quantum behavior.

  2. The Standard Model already explains most quantum phenomena, such as the double slit experiment.

  3. Most obviously: the same gravity is present in the Double Slit at all times, and yet interference effects only show up in some versions of the experiment (i.e. when which-slit information is not available.) So your hypothesis is at odds with experiment.

With these issues, it is not really necessary to discuss the Bohmian Mechanics interpretation side of things.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Upvoted because in general I agree, but small note - "the standard model" is overkill for explaining the double slit experiment. All you need for the double slit experiment is the underlying principle of all quantum field theories (including the standard model), which is quantum mechanics $\hat{U}(t)|\text{state}\rangle=e^{-iEt/\hbar}|\text{state}\rangle$. Whether or not interference happens doesn't depend on the existence of the W+ boson and the top quark! $\endgroup$
    – AXensen
    Commented Apr 12, 2023 at 16:35
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Agree completely @AXensen. I didn't think that nuance would affect what the OP takes away. Basically, all interpretations already explain the DS behavior precisely because it is part and parcel of QM (as you say). Usually a shout out to Bohmian Mechanics is intended to explain quantum nonlocality in some manner. However, that really isn't a factor in Double Slit experiment. $\endgroup$
    – DrChinese
    Commented Apr 13, 2023 at 13:59

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.