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In this popular science article, they say that if our universe resulted to be non-uniform (that is highly anisotropic and inhomogeneous) then the fundamental laws of physics could change from place to place in the entire universe.

But what theoretical basis does this claim have?

I mean, I know that, as far as we know, the universe appears to be isotropic and homogeneous, but even then, let's assume for a moment that this was not the case. How does an anisotropic-inhomogeneous universe lead to this? If our spacetime was highly anisotropic and inhomogeneous would this be possible?

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It sort of happens by definition. The wordings are a bit circular in this sense. Isotropy speaks to a symmetry in the universe which we can use to predict that things operate the same in all directions. If it is anisotropic, then there is no such symmetry. "Anisotropic" is less of a cause of the fundamental laws changing and more of a description of it happening.

Of course, such anisotropy could also occur within the structure of deeper fundamental laws of the universe, more fundamental than the ones we have gleaned through science, but the question becomes how could we determine what the laws are at extremely far distances, as we simply cannot travel there.

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  • $\begingroup$ thank you for your answer. As far as I know, there are some spacetimes (or rather, models of spacetime) that are anisotropic and inhomogeneous. Then, if our universe was in a spacetime that would be anisotropic and inhomogeneous, would the consequences described in the pop-sci article happen? @CortAmmon $\endgroup$
    – vengaq
    Commented Mar 7, 2023 at 21:47

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