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I have came recently across the following equation

$$\psi(x,t_2)=\int G(x,y)\psi(y,t_1)dy$$

I want to understand its interpretation. Here is what i understand, I see that this equation gives the form of the new wavefront (which i believe is a straight line) $\psi(x,t_2)$ at the new position $x$ and the new time $t_2$ given the integral of the previous small wavelets multiplied by the propagator $G$ over the entire y axis, that is given $\int G(x,y)\psi(y,t_1)dy$

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What you are looking at is the representation of a linear operator as in integral (which is not possible for all of them).

More specifically, the operator you are looking at, is a time-translation invariant, time-evolution operator $U(t_2, t_1)$. This operator evolves your solution at time $t_1$ to your solution at $t_2$, in other words $$ \psi(x, t_2) = \big(U(t_2, t_1) \psi\big)(x, t_1) $$

If such an operator is reasonably nice, it can be represented as an integral (note that the word "operator" typically implies linearity): $$ \psi(x, t_2) = \int dx'\, G(x, x') \psi(x', t_1) $$

The label $y$ is just chosen randomly in your original equation (I have chosen $x'$), it's just a dummy integration variable, you can label it as you want). $x$ need not even be a number in this notation, it could be an element of Euclidean space $\mathbb{R}^n$ and the equations would all look the same. It refers to the same physical space as the variable $x$ of the resulting $\psi(x, t_2)$.

$G(\cdot, x)$ can be understood as the wave after a evolution time of $t_2 - t_1$ when the initial conditions where $\psi(x, t_1) = \delta(x)$. With this we can make your intuitive description of the structure of the solution explicit, here we write $U(t_2, t_1)$ as $U_x$ to make clear that it only acts on functions $x \mapsto f(x)$ in the free variable $x$: $$ \psi(x, t_2) = U_x \psi(x, t_1) = U_x \int dx' \psi(x', t_1) \delta(x - x') = \int dx' \psi(x', t_1) U_x \delta(x - x') = \int dx' \psi(x', t_1) G(x, x'). $$ So the solution $\psi(x, t_2)$ is the superposition of the time-evolution of the delta spikes weighted by the initial state. We could pull the operator into the integral here since the operator is linear (and we assume it and our initial data to be "reasonable nice") and $U_x$ does not act on $x'$ so the $\psi(x', t_1)$ are just coefficients.

Note, that this is not the Huygens principle as usually given – the solution denpends not only on the points on the wavefront but on the value of the solution in the entire support of $G$ at an earlier time. (The wave equation $\partial_t^2 \phi = c^2 \Delta \phi$ in odd dimensions, however, does permit a solution that can be interpreted as strictly following the Huygens principles).

In other words: In general, you don't construct wavefronts from wavefronts, but rather wave configurations from wave configurations. And in this sense it is a strongly generalized Huygens principle.

Note: Wikipedia has quite a nice discussion of more or less exactly these issue: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Huygens%E2%80%93Fresnel_principle.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why the y variable is dummy and not exactly meant to be the physical y axis? $\endgroup$
    – Jack
    Commented Feb 26, 2023 at 23:50
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    $\begingroup$ Well which axis is meant physically is encoded by the fact, that it is the first argument of $\psi(\cdot, t_i)$ – this is the same physical space at different times $t_i$. The name you give to a variable you integrate over has no inherent meaning (of course it is often chosen by convention). Using $x'$ is less confusing in this case IMO for that reason. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 27, 2023 at 18:56
  • $\begingroup$ If I may ask, do you mean by wave configuration, the the new snapshot of the wave of the entire space at some later time t₂? $\endgroup$
    – Jack
    Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 1:14
  • $\begingroup$ One more question, given what you said about y and it is just a dummy integration variable, how can I justify Feynman writing the kinetic energy K.E in some small time interval ε as follows: K.E=½m(x-y)/ε. Him writing it this way implies that y is the same as x some later time, i am confused at this point. $\endgroup$
    – Jack
    Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 2:06
  • $\begingroup$ To the first question: yes. To the second question: I am not sure (I need more context to understand the formula for the KE). Where does $m$ come from, how does $\psi$ enter this formula. My guess for $x$ and $y$ is, that the formula needs an integration over $x$ and $y$, and those represent the arguments of $\psi$ at two different times (but refer to the same spatial axis). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 1, 2023 at 17:08

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