I'm trying to replicate the results obtained in this paper: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1606.00318.pdf . On page 3 the autors mention that the fact that the weight of the first principal component is uniform on all lattice sites means that "the transformation actually gives the uniform magnetization:"
$$m=\frac{1}{N}\sum_i\sigma_i$$
I have absolutely no idea of what this is supposed to mean. Is it supposed to be that the weight (intended as the eigenvalue of the principal eigenvector) is proportional to the magnetization? But how can we deduce that from the fact that the vector has uniform components?