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It's a well known fact that for any hermitian operator, say $H$ (assuming there is no degeneracy), $${\left< a_i \right.\left| a_j \right> \over \sqrt{\left< a_i \right.\left| a_i \right> \left< a_j \right.\left| a_j\right>}}= \delta_{ij}$$

where $\left| a_i \right>$ are eigenstates (aka eigenvectors) of $H$ such that $H\left| a_i \right> = a_i \left| a_i \right>$.

My query is that, in the above result we need not define the explicit form of the inner product of the states and it seems like any definition for inner product would work. So, is there any subtle point that I'm missing in my reasoning? or are we invoking some particular property of the inner product that isn't obvious through the derivation of above expression?

Any insights or comments are appreciated!

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  • $\begingroup$ It's obvious in the literature what the definition is. It's spoken about in every intro text on QM. Why do you think otherwise? $\endgroup$
    – joseph h
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 18:50
  • $\begingroup$ @TobiasFünke No, not "nonsense". I think it's a valid question. OP appears to be asking if there is a general definition, which there is. $\endgroup$
    – joseph h
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 18:58
  • $\begingroup$ @josephh Sorry, I could've misread your comment. Do you mean this? I think OP is confused because the text did not give an explicit realization of an inner product. But I may be wrong here. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 19:00
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    $\begingroup$ @TobiasFünke ...yes. $\endgroup$
    – joseph h
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 19:00
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    $\begingroup$ I don't understand the question - there is no explicit definition of the inner product needed, the statement about eigenstates of self-adjoint operators being orthogonal holds for all inner products (although of course which operators are self-adjoint might vary with the choice of product). $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 19:07

1 Answer 1

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My query is that, in the above result we need not define the explicit form of the inner product of the states and it seems like any definition for inner product would work.

You need a definition of inner product to know whether $H$ is Hermitian/self-adjoint or not.


Take the vector space $\mathbb C^2$ and consider the two inner products $$\left<\pmatrix{a\\b},\pmatrix{c\\d}\right>_1 := \overline ac + \overline b d$$ $$\left<\pmatrix{a\\b},\pmatrix{c\\d}\right>_2 := \overline ad + \overline b c$$

Note: the second is not actually an inner product because it is not positive definite. As a result, it does not produce a Hilbert space. However, as fixing this would add substantial algebraic clutter without meaningfully changing the answer, I have elected to keep this "mistake" intact for now.

Let $M:= \pmatrix{w&x\\y&z}$ be a linear operator. If we use inner product $1$ to compute its adjoint, we obtain $$\left<\pmatrix{a\\b},M\pmatrix{c\\d}\right>_1 = \overline a\big(wc+xd\big)+\overline b\big(yc+zd\big)$$ $$= \overline{\big(\overline wa+\overline yb\big)}c + \overline{\big(\overline xa + \overline zb\big)}d = \left<M^\dagger_1\pmatrix{a\\b},\pmatrix{c\\d}\right>_1$$ $$\implies M^\dagger_1 = \pmatrix{\overline w & \overline y\\\overline x & \overline z}$$

Doing the same thing for the second inner product yields $$\left<\pmatrix{a\\b},M\pmatrix{c\\d}\right>_2 = \overline a\big(yc+zd\big)+\overline b\big(wc+xd\big)$$ $$= \overline{\big(\overline za + \overline xb\big)}d+\overline{\big(\overline ya+\overline wb\big)}c = \left<M^\dagger_2\pmatrix{a\\b},\pmatrix{c\\d}\right>_2$$ $$\implies M^\dagger_2 = \pmatrix{\overline z & \overline x\\ \overline y & \overline w}$$

Clearly whether $M$ is self-adjoint depends on which inner product we choose. In the former (conventional) case, $M$ is self-adjoint if its diagonal entries are real and its off-diagonal entries are complex conjugates of one another. In the latter case, the condition for self-adjointness is that the diagonal entries are complex conjugates of one another and the off-diagonal entries are real.

The takeaway here is that when we say an operator is self-adjoint, we mean self-adjoint with respect to a particular inner product. All of the subsequent properties of the operator - and in particular, the orthogonality of its eigenspaces - are with respect to the that inner product.


Lastly, at least for finite-dimensional Hilbert spaces, physicists essentially always use the standard inner product $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle_1$. However, we are not missing anything by doing so. Note that given any choice of inner product we may choose an orthonormal basis for the Hilbert space; a linear map between these bases constitutes an isometric isomorphism.

In that sense, the two Hilbert spaces which we obtain by equipping $\mathbb C^2$ with the two different inner products are equivalent.

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  • $\begingroup$ I can honestly say that I do not recall coming across the case where the diagonal elements are complex. Examples or papers? $\endgroup$
    – joseph h
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ @josephh Are you referring to operators which are self-adjoint with respect to the second inner product? $\endgroup$
    – J. Murray
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 19:27
  • $\begingroup$ Your answer seems to imply that operators with complex diagonal components are also self-adjoint, which seems to be a contradiction. Examples? $\endgroup$
    – joseph h
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 19:31
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    $\begingroup$ @TobiasFünke Just to clarify, the operator $M$ I wrote above is not meant to be a matrix representation with respect to any basis; rather, the array in round brackets is meant to be shorthand for the linear map $\pmatrix{a\\b}\mapsto \pmatrix{wa+xb\\ya+zb}$, and by "diagonal entries" I mean $w$ and $z$. Along the same lines, $\pmatrix{a\\b}$ is an honest element of $\mathbb C^2$, not shorthand for $a\vec v_1+b\vec v_2$ for some unspecified basis $\{\vec v_1,\vec v_2\}$. $\endgroup$
    – J. Murray
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 20:33
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    $\begingroup$ @josephh I think we agree. Given the standard inner product, the adjoint of a matrix is given by its conjugate transpose, in which case a self-adjoint operator must have real diagonal entries. Using a different inner product yields a different result. My intention is not to be mathematically pedantic, but rather to clarify that the orthogonality which describes the eigenspaces and the self-adjointness which describes an operator are both tied to the same (possibly unspecified) inner product - a point which the OP seems to have understood. $\endgroup$
    – J. Murray
    Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 20:35

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