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I want to show how partial derivative transforms under a Lorentz transformation. Since the partial derivative has a fixed definition with respect to the $x$-coordinate it stays unchanged: $\partial_\mu\phi(x)\rightarrow\partial_\mu\phi(\Lambda x)$. With $x^{\prime}=\Lambda x$ we get then: $$\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}=\frac{\partial}{\partial ((\Lambda^{-1})^\mu{}_\nu\Lambda^\nu{}_\rho x^\rho)}=\frac{\partial}{\partial((\Lambda^{-1})^\mu{}_{\nu}x^{\prime\nu})}= \Lambda_\mu{}^{\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\prime\nu}}$$

How can one prove the following equation: $$\frac{\partial}{\partial((\Lambda^{-1})^\mu{}_{\nu}x^{\prime\nu})}= \Lambda_\mu{}^{\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{\prime\nu}}$$

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  • $\begingroup$ @Ghoster I actually want to use this to show a how a partial derivative transforms but I don‘t know how to proof this rigorous. $\endgroup$
    – Silas
    Commented Dec 4, 2022 at 20:22
  • $\begingroup$ @Ghoster yes of course but that doesn‘t work properly because we would have to relabel $x$ and $x^\prime$. $\endgroup$
    – Silas
    Commented Dec 4, 2022 at 22:10

1 Answer 1

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Technically this might be considered a different derivation, but I guess it goes more directly to the point. Instead of rewriting the variable you are differentiating with respect to, you can just use a chain rule. Notice that $$\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu} = \frac{\partial {x}^{\nu'}}{\partial x^\mu}\frac{\partial}{\partial {x}^{\nu'}} = \Lambda^{\nu'}{}_\mu \frac{\partial}{\partial {x}^{\nu'}}.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ But we have $x^{\prime\nu}=\Lambda^\nu{}_\rho x^\rho$ which should give $\frac{\partial x ^{\prime\nu}}{\partial x^\mu}=\Lambda^\nu{}_\mu$. $\endgroup$
    – Silas
    Commented Dec 5, 2022 at 8:11
  • $\begingroup$ @Silas Oops. Corrected it. The result on my answer now corresponds to Eq. (1.53) in Sean Carroll's book (Spacetime and Geometry). I used his notation with primes in the indices to make it a bit more clear. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 5, 2022 at 12:53

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