This 1979 paper by Chen, Lee, and Pereira gives an operator $L$ satisfying
$$\dot L = [A, L],\tag{1}$$
where $A$ is another operator, and the dot denotes time differentiation. They then define $I_n = \text{Tr}(L^n)$, and with the cyclic property of the trace one easily finds that $\dot I_n = 0$.
It is the next part I have trouble with. They define
$$J_n = \text{Tr}(BL^{n-1}),\tag{2}$$
where $B$ is an operator that fulfills
$$\dot B = [A, B] + L,\tag{3}$$
and they claim that therefore
$$\dot J_n = I_n.\tag{4}$$
When I try to verify (4) it starts promising with
$$ \begin{split} \dot J_n &= \text{Tr} \left( \dot BL^{n-1} + B(n-1)L^{n-2} \dot L \right) \\ &= \text{Tr} \left( [A,B]L^{n-1} + (n-1)BL^{n-2}[A,L] \right) + I_n, \end{split}\tag{5} $$
so I have been trying to show that the trace in the final expression is zero, but without success. One idea I had was to use an inductive argument, because (4) is certainly true for $n = 1,2$, but I haven't even been able to show it for $n=3$.
What am I missing? The article states (4) as if it is an obvious consequence of (2) and (3), but I don't see it.