I take the Lagrangian, $$\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2}\partial_\mu \phi^T\,\partial^\mu\phi\,-\, \frac{1}{2}\mu^2\phi^T\phi-\frac{\lambda}{4}(\phi^T\phi)^2~,$$ where $\phi=(\phi_1,\,\phi_2,\,\phi_3)$ (real scalar field). $\mathcal{L}$ satisfies SO(3) symmetry. The potential is minimized for $\phi_0^T\phi_0=\mu^2/\lambda\equiv v^2$. When I take $\phi_0=(v,0,0)$, and then replace $\phi(x)=(v+\sigma(x),\pi_1(x),\pi_2(x))$ in the Lagrangian, I get $\pi_1$ and $\pi_2$ as massless and $\sigma$ as massive. Also I can see that for this choice of $\phi_0$ one of the three generators of $SO(3)$ gives $L_1\,\phi_0=0$, where $L_1$ is the generator with all element in the first column as zero.
Now if I choose $\phi_0 = (v/\sqrt{3},\,v/\sqrt{3},\,v/\sqrt{3})$ and then replace $\phi(x)=(v/\sqrt{3}+\sigma(x),v/\sqrt{3}+\pi_1(x),v/\sqrt{3}+\pi_2(x))$ into $\mathcal{L}$ then $\pi's$ are also becoming massive along with $\sigma$. Also none of the enerators giving $L_i\,\phi_0=0$.
But this seems not to be right. Where am I going wrong?
[I am reading from Peskin - chapter 11]