In D.K.Cheng's equation 8-29 he makes the following correlation between the magnetic field intensity $\mathbf{H}$ and the electric field intensity $\mathbf{E}$ in an electromagnetic wave.
Where $\eta$ is the instrinsic impedance. So if I know the electric field $\mathbf{E}$, I can also find $\mathbf{H}$.
However, I'm confused how you choose a proper normal vector $\mathbf{a_n}$ when doing the cross-product in the formula.
Example
Let's say I have an electric field $\mathbf{E}=C(\mathbf{a_x}+j\mathbf{a_y}) \cdot e^{-jk_0z}$,
where $C$ is a constant, $j$ is the imaginary unit and $k_0$ is the wavenumber. Since $\mathbf{E}$ has an $x$-component and a $y$-component, a normal vector to $\mathbf{E}$ must then be $\mathbf{a_z}$, since the dot-product now results in $0$.
$$\mathbf{H} = \frac{C}{\eta} \Bigg( \begin{bmatrix}0 \\0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\j\\0\end{bmatrix} \Bigg)=\frac{C}{\eta} (-j\mathbf{a_x}+\mathbf{a_y}) \cdot e^{-jk_0z}$$
And we get the following $\mathbf{H}$-field. However! another normal vector to $\mathbf{E}$ is also $-\mathbf{a_z}$, because the dot-product still results in $0$. Calculating the $\mathbf{H}$-field now gives.
$$\mathbf{H} = \frac{C}{\eta} \Bigg( \begin{bmatrix}0 \\0 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\j\\0\end{bmatrix} \Bigg)=\frac{C}{\eta} (j\mathbf{a_x}-\mathbf{a_y}) \cdot e^{-jk_0z}$$
As seen, we get two different $\mathbf{H}$-fields. I get they are parallel but they have opposite direction.
My question
So how do I choose the correct normal vector?