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I'm trying to solve a problem but I don't know even where to start.

The problem is about a smooth hollow cylinder of mass $M$ rotating about an axis in one of the extremes of the pole with an initial angular velocity of $\omega_0$. Inside of that cylinder there's a particle of mass $m_1$ that can move freely along the longitudinal axis with an initial position of $r_0$ and an initial velocity of $0$. The length of the pole is $l$, therefore the moment of inertia is $I_G=\frac{1}{12}Ml^2$ as the mass is uniformly distributed.

problem sketch

What I have to calculate is the differential equation that relates the distance $r$ with the point $O$ and then solve it for $M\gg m_1$. I've never done an exercise of this type with a moving axis, so I don't really know how to do it.

What I understand here is that as the surface of the pole is smooth, there's no friction force and there would be a normal force in the $\theta$ direction. Therefore, the diagram of the system would be:

enter image description here

This would give us the equations:

$r$ axis: $O_x sin\theta+O_y cos\theta=-M\omega^2\frac{l}{2}-m_1 \frac{\dot{r}^2}{r}$

$\theta$ axis: $N+O_xcos\theta-O_ysin\theta=M\dot{\omega}\frac{l}{2}+m_1\dot{\omega}r$

Moment at $O$: $Nr=M\dot{\omega}\frac{l^2}{4}+m_1\dot{\omega}r^2+\frac{1}{12}Ml^2\dot{\omega}$

Which I suppose it has $N, O_x, O_y, \dot{\omega}, r$ as unknowns, so I cannot solve the system.

If I do it with the Lagrange equation, as there is only Kinetical energy: $L=\frac{1}{2}m_1(\dot{r}^2+(r\omega)^2)+\frac{1}{2}M\omega^2\frac{l^2}{4}+\frac{1}{24}Ml^2\omega^2$, and $Q^{NC}_r=0, Q^{NC}_\theta=Nr$. Therefore:

$$m_1\ddot{r}=m_1\omega^2r$$ $$Nr=m_1\dot{\omega}r^2+\frac{1}{3}Ml^2\dot{\omega}$$

But again, I don't know $N$ so I don't know how to continue. Is there anything wrong that I'm doing or something that I'm missing?

I'll paste the whole text so it's more clear enter image description here

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2 Answers 2

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Solving this using polar co-ordinates will be much easier. Write the equations for conservation of angular momentum, and conservation of energy as follows:

$$I_0 \omega_0 + mr_0^2\omega_0=I_0\omega + mr^2\omega$$ $$\frac{I_0\omega_0^2}{2}+\frac{mr_0^2\omega_0^2}{2}=\frac{I_0\omega^2}{2} + \frac{mr^2\omega^2}{2} + \frac{m \dot r ^2}{2}$$

Manipulate these two equations to get the differetial equation.

Note: Here, $I_0$ is the moment of inertia of the rod, $r_0$ is initial position of particle, and $\omega_0$ is initial angular velocity.

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  • $\begingroup$ Isn't $I_o=0$ in this case as it is a particle? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 4:39
  • $\begingroup$ Im applying COAM about O, so the particle also has moment of inertia. Also, $I_0$ here, is the moment of inertia of the rod, in the equations that i have written, it is a constant. $\endgroup$
    – dnaik
    Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 4:45
  • $\begingroup$ I see, thank you very much! I can understand everything now :) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 13:37
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The best way to go about this is using angular momentum conservation around $O$. Indeed, there are no external torques on the system around this point and thus angular momentum conservation is valid. This conservation equation tells us that $$(I_O+m_1r_0^2)\omega_0=(I_O+m_1r^2)\dot{\theta}.$$ On the other hand, the acceleration of the particle in the radial direction is $\ddot{r}-r\dot{\theta}^2$. Since there are no forces in this direction, it must vanish, yielding $\dot{\theta}^2=\ddot{r}/r$. We then conclude that $$(I_O+m_1r_0^2)^2\omega_0^2=(I_O+m_1r^2)^2\ddot{r}/r.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Here we're talking about the momentum conservation for the particle, right? Isn't $I_o=0$ in this case as it is a particle? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 4:39
  • $\begingroup$ Ah no, this would be the complete system right? as $J_{bar}=I_0\omega$ as it is only rotating around O. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 4:45
  • $\begingroup$ Yep, angular momentum conservation is only valid if you consider the complete system. The angular momentum of the particle isn't conserved because the normal force exerts a torque on it. The same can be said for the bar. It is only when considering the complete system that the normal force becomes internal and we can use conservation of angular momentum. This is a consequence of Newton's third law in its strong version $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 11:47
  • $\begingroup$ That makes sense, thank you for your answer! I could solve it with no problems :) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 30, 2020 at 13:36

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