1
$\begingroup$

I'm poking around Faraday's law regarding induction and I'm trying to solidify my understanding. In my figure below the light blue shaded area is a region of uniform magnetic field directed into the screen (signified by the one red X). If this magnetic field is increasing in magnitude at a constant rate, $dB/dt$, then it will induce an electric field that drives a current flowing counter clockwise around the purple conductor loop (nature reacts to change).

enter image description here

This results in an emf being produced around the loop as per the equation, $$\oint \vec E \cdot \vec ds = - \frac{d\phi_B }{dt}$$ And since, $$\phi_B = BA$$ the flux linking the purple ring depends on the area inside the ring. So, here is my question, what if I have a "hole" in the middle of the ring within which is no $B$ field (white area in figure below)? All other things equal, will this configuration induce the same $E$ field and resulting current $i$ as the above case?

enter image description here

I know that the total magnetic flux linking the coil is smaller now ($BA$), but i think the rate-of-change of that flux linkage is the same as the first scenario...making me think the coil will not know the difference and the emf and induced current $i$, will be same as first case.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The flux is B.A . So, the change in flux, say in one first case will be larger as the net the flux is larger. The d phi / dt is not same in both cases. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 31, 2020 at 4:06

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

As you say, Maxwell's equations states that the emf is:

$$\begin{align} Emf &= - \frac{d\phi}{dt} \\ &= - \frac{dB.A}{dt}\\ &= - A\frac{dB}{dt} \end{align}$$

Where we subbed in the formula for flux, and since A is a constant (doesn't change with time), we can bring A out of the derivative.

We can now compare your two cases.
Assuming that $\frac{dB}{dt}$ is the same between the two cases and that A is smaller in Case 2 vs Case 1 ($A_2 < A_1)$.
Then by the above formula, we see that in Case 2, the Emf induced (and hence current induced) is smaller in magnitude than in Case 1 where we had a larger area.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

$$\phi=B. da$$Thus where ever magnetic field strength is zero flux becomes zero.

The flux linked with ring is given by $\int B. da$ i.e it is the sum of $ B. da$ all over the area of the ring and where $B=0$ contribution to flux is zero

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ So what will be the electric field? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 31, 2020 at 3:58

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.