I am a bit confused about the following thing: In the derivation of the coherence function for the electric field at two times $t_1$ and $t_2$, following simplification is made: $$\langle E^*(t_1) E(t_2) \rangle = \langle E^*(t) E(t + \tau) \rangle$$ So the statement is: the correlation function must be homogeneous in time, so it can only be dependent on time differences. As a reason for that, the principle of ergodicity was given without any further explanation.
It's not obvious to me how it follows from that though - maybe someone has a few clarifying words for me.