Suppose I have semi-infinite conducting planes that intersect at some angle $\theta_0$ and have a potential difference of $V$ (the axis of intersection is somehow insulated so they are not actually in contact). If we consider the space between the plates that is subtended by the angle $\theta_0$, my textbook says that we can say that "because of the symmetry of the problem, any plane that passes through the axis where semi-infinite planes intersect is an equipotential surface", and thus the "potential between the plates is only a function of angular position". If we adopt a cylindrical coordinate system where the z-axis is aligned with the axis where the semi-infinite planes intersect, then this means that
\begin{equation} \varphi(r,z,\theta) = \varphi(\theta) \end{equation}
since $r$ and $z$ do not effect the potential because of the alluded to symmetry.
When I look at this problem, the independence of $z$ position is a lot more obvious than the $r$ independence. The geometry of this problem doesn't change for different surfaces of constant $z$, so then the potential shouldn't depend on $z$ -- that makes sense to me. However, can someone please explain how there is a such a symmetry in $r$? Since the planes are only semi-infinite, it seems to me that for different values of $r$, the geometry of the problem should be different, so then how is there a symmetry?