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I've recently watched this video about an electromagnetic ring accelerator. I get how it works:

  • it uses controlled electro-magnetic coils to accelerate metal balls' Passing trough one of the coils has two stages:
  • when the coil passes enters the coil, the coil is powered on, generating an electro-magnetic field, accelerating the ball towards the center
  • as the particle passes trough the origin of the coil, the coil is quickly powered off and the ball continues forward

What I am curious about is exactly what forces act on it. Searching online there appear to be some inconsistent answers, but it always either is the magnetic force or the Lorenz force law. From what I understood the magnetic force is purely for describing magnetic attraction, either between two magnets or a magnetic (ferromagnetic?) object and a magnet, while the Lorenz force law is the combination of the magnetic and electric laws.

Could somebody explain which of these two is and what exactly their formulas are in the context of the balls passing trough the coils?

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This is not the Lorentz force, which describes electric and magnetic forces on electric charges, it is the force of a magnetic field on a magnetic dipole (here's the wiki page about it).

When the coil is activated the magnetic field magnetizes the ferromagnetic spheres in the same direction (this corresponds to the magnetic field aligning the electron spin dipoles in the atoms of the spheres). Now that they are magnetized the magnetic field applies a force to them and pulls them towards the coil.

Quantitatively, the magnetic field $\mathbf B$ induces a dipole moment $\mathbf m$ in the spheres which gives them a potential energy $$U = - \mathbf m\cdot\mathbf B$$

The corresponding force is $$\mathbf F = -\nabla U = \nabla(\mathbf m\cdot \mathbf B)$$ In words this (roughly) says the force pulls the spheres in the direction of increasing $\mathbf B$ field strength. I say roughly because that explanation ignores any increase of $\mathbf m$ of the spheres, but $\mathbf m$ will always be induced parallel to $\mathbf B$ so the overall effect remains the same: Since the magnetic field strength is larger closer to the coil, the force pulls the spheres towards the center of the coil. At the center the field strength is at a maximum magnitude which means $\mathbf m\cdot \mathbf B$ is at an extremum, i.e. $\nabla(\mathbf m\cdot \mathbf B) = 0$, which implies $\mathbf F = 0$.

A force of 0 at the center of the coil is why you see in the video that with the coil left on the spheres get stuck: Any displacement of a sphere from the center of the coil causes a force to pull it towards the center, so that the center is a stable equilibrium point of no net force.

Therefore in order for the coil to speed up the spheres as they pass, it has to be turned off before they reach the center, otherwise the field will pull them back in when they come out the other side.

The way it works on permanent magnets is similar, and has the same force equation $$\mathbf F = \nabla(\mathbf m\cdot \mathbf B)$$ Generally permanent magnets will have a much larger dipole moment than induced magnets, so the force is larger. However problem is that with permanent magnets, the dipole moment $\mathbf m$ is not induced in the direction of $\mathbf B$, rather it depends on the orientation of the permanent north and south poles of the sphere. The misalignment of $\mathbf m$ and $\mathbf B$ results in a torque in addition to the force $$\mathbf \tau = \mathbf m\times \mathbf B$$ which tries to keep the poles aligned with the field. This is bad for the accelerator: The spheres want to roll for efficient motion, but the field wants to keep their orientations fixed. This is probably what he meant in the description about permanent magnets having erratic behavior.

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  • $\begingroup$ Hello! Thanks for the answer! Really helpful. One more thing, how would $\mathbf{B}$ be calculated in this case? I found $B=\mu\frac{NI}{l}$, but it's just the lenght of the vector. $\endgroup$
    – Memat
    Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 16:05
  • $\begingroup$ @Memat That expression is the magnetic field of a long solenoid, which is a bad approximation for a short coil like this. The correct expression is $\mathbf B = N\frac{\mu_0}{2}\frac{R^2 I}{(z^2 + R^2)^{\frac32}}\hat z$, where $N$ is the number of turns, $R$ is the radius of the coil, $I$ is the current, and $z$ is the distance from the center. The direction, $\hat z$, points towards you when looking from the side where the coil wraps counterclockwise. hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/magnetic/curloo.html $\endgroup$
    – Er Jio
    Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 16:12
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for all the help! :D One more thing. It's clear that the magnetic field strength is larger closer to the coil, but where does this fact appear in the equation? $\endgroup$
    – Memat
    Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 17:00
  • $\begingroup$ @Memat No problems :) The increasing strength comes from the factor $\frac{1}{(z^2 + R^2)^{\frac32}}$ which gets bigger as $z^2 + R^2$, and therefore $z^2$, gets smaller. So the strength is higher the smaller the distance from the center. $\endgroup$
    – Er Jio
    Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 17:59

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