For $n=m$, the Wigner function is given by, $$ W_n(\alpha) = \frac{2}{\pi} (-1)^n \exp(-2 |\alpha|^2) L_n(4 |\alpha|^2), $$
And for $n \neq m $, it is, $$ f_{mn}=\sqrt{\frac{m!}{n!}} e^{i(m-n) \arctan\left( p/x\right) } \frac{\left( -1\right)^{m}}{\pi\hbar}\left ( \frac{x^{2}+p^{2}}{\hbar/2} \right ) ^ {\left( n-m\right) /2} L_{m}^{n-m}\left( \frac{x^{2}+p^{2}}{\hbar/2}\right) e^{-\left( x^{2}+p^{2}\right) /\hbar} $$ and in this case, there will be always a $e^{i(m-n) \arctan\left( p/x\right)}$ term. But the Wigner function is a real valued function. How to reconcile this?