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I have studied that $vdv=adx$ in motion in 1D, it is derived as

$$a= \frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{dv}{dx} \frac{dx}{dt} = v \frac{dv}{dx}$$

I want to know if its vector form, $v \cdot dv= a \cdot dx$, is proper and how we would prove it.

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If you want to see its vector form, you can repeat the previous derivation, but in 2D:

$$\vec{a} = \frac{d \vec{v}}{dt} = \frac{\partial \vec{v}}{\partial x_1} \frac{dx_1}{dt} + \frac{\partial \vec{v}}{\partial x_2} \frac{dx_2}{dt} = v_1 \frac{\partial \vec{v}}{\partial x_1} + v_2 \frac{\partial \vec{v}}{\partial x_2} = \vec{v} \cdot \vec{\nabla} \vec{v}$$

Be aware that the dot product happens between $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{\nabla}$. You need to know something about differential calculus. The same reasoning is valid also in 3D or any number of space dimensions.

Edit: The comments below refer to a previous version of the answer. Also, it is worth checking this and this related posts.

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  • $\begingroup$ I think that the original question does not refer to vector fields, just vector functions of only time (i.e. point particles). $\endgroup$
    – Quillo
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 8:03
  • $\begingroup$ @Quillo the derivation is the same. And he is refering to functions of x and t, you can see it in his formula. $\endgroup$
    – geofisue
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 8:06
  • $\begingroup$ @geofiuse there is no partial derivative in time. The question is clearly about a single trajectory. Given the basic level of the question is much better not to create confusion by introducing fields. Anyway, this question is a clear duplicate, e.g. physics.stackexchange.com/q/552602/226902 $\endgroup$
    – Quillo
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 8:09
  • $\begingroup$ @Quillo You are the one talking about fields. I just have a function f(x1(t),x2(t),t). It could be anything $\endgroup$
    – geofisue
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 8:12
  • $\begingroup$ @Quillo if there is no t dependency, that partial is zero. It's general case. $\endgroup$
    – geofisue
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 8:13

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