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I am following a propaedeutic course in quantum mechanics, and we did some basics of statistical mechanics deriving the Boltzmann equation for energy: $$n_i=\frac{N}{Z}g_i e^\frac{-E_i}{kT}$$ where $n_i$ is the number of particles with $E_i$, $Z$ is the partition function, and $g_i$ is the multiplicity. From that equation, we derived that the average energy is: $$\bar E=kT^2\frac{d}{dT}(\log Z)$$ Some lessons later, we are now doing Rayleigh-Jeans model for the black body, and we said that the electrons on the walls of the black body are modelled as 1-dimensional harmonic oscillators, so, for the equipartition theorem, the average kinetic energy is $\frac{1}{1}kT$, the average potential energy is $\frac{1}{1}kT$, and the total energy is $kT$. After that, our professor told us this can be derived also from statistical mechanic, because $$p(E)=\frac{e^\frac{-E_i}{kT}}{kT}$$ where kT is the normalization factor, and, by definition of average: $$\bar E=\int_{0}^\infty Ep(E)dE=kT$$ But now I am confused: where did the factor $\frac{N}{Z}g_i$ go? And therefore, where did the factor $\frac{d}{dT}(\log Z)$ go when calculating $\langle E\rangle$?

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    $\begingroup$ This equation is not true in general, it is a special case of the equipartition theorem. It is works for RJ because each EM modes are independent harmonic oscillators, so the theorem is applicable. $\endgroup$
    – LPZ
    Commented Apr 16, 2023 at 18:46
  • $\begingroup$ @lpz thank you, I understand that; then I'm wondering if the equation I wrote for p(E) is a particular case for the first equation, where g_i/Z = 1/KT? $\endgroup$
    – Fede
    Commented Apr 16, 2023 at 19:18
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, your third equation expressing $p(E)$ is merely expressing the partition function $Z$. For the 1D harmonic oscillator: $$Z=kT$$ (exponential distribution) which you can check by integrating out the phase. You can also obtain this fact directly by dimensional analysis. Note that you’ll still need a degeneracy factor in frequency $\propto \nu^2$ since you’ll have more modes at higher frequency (proportional to the sphere’s surface) which will be responsible for the IV catastrophe. $\endgroup$
    – LPZ
    Commented Apr 16, 2023 at 20:49
  • $\begingroup$ > 'electrons on the walls of the black body are modeled as 1-dimensional harmonic oscillators" That is not what the R-J derivation is based on. R-J derivation describes directly radiation using statistical physics. There are no electrons in the calculation. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 17, 2023 at 2:21

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Probably, part of the explanation passed unnoticed, or it was missing. The formula $$ p(E)=\frac{e^{-\frac{E}{kT}}}{kT} \tag{1} $$ has not the same validity as the general probability of finding the system in a state of energy $E$ in a canonical ensemble, which can be obtained from your formula for $n_i$ dividing by $N$.

However, once one has justified the use of the partition function for a set of non-interacting one-dimensional harmonic oscillators$^*$, formula ($1$) is the correct energy distribution for the $1D$ harmonic oscillator, the energy density of states is a constant (it does not depend on $E$). Therefore, if $g_i=constant$, the probability is proportional to $e^{-\frac{E}{kT}}$, and the normalization factor of the density distribution in energy is $\frac{1}{kT}$. If we evaluate the partition function of a classical harmonic oscillator in $1D$, we find $$ Z=\frac{kT}{\hbar \omega}, \tag{2} $$ differing from the previous normalization by an energy factor $\hbar \omega$, necessary for dimensional reasons (the probability density of states in the phase space is dimensionless, while the probability density of energy has the dimension of inverse energy). In any case, a partition function depending linearly on $T$ is all we need to get the average energy equal to $kT$.

Summarizing, equation $(1)$ is valid only for the $1D$ classical harmonic oscillator. However, the final result $\left< E \right>= kT$, is a special case of the equipartition theorem, stating that the equilibrium average of each quadratic degree of freedom in the Hamiltonian is equal to $\frac{kT}{2}$.


$^*$ I'm afraid I disagree with the justification for using a set of harmonic oscillators the way you reported (electrons on the walls of the black body are modeled as 1-dimensional harmonic oscillators). The main reasons are the following:

  1. In the case of blackbody radiation, the system of interest is the radiation field in the cavity, not the electrons;
  2. It is the electromagnetic field, expressed in terms of normal modes, that is described exactly as a set of non-interacting harmonic oscillators. Any electronic system could be only approximately treated that way.
  3. The so-called ultraviolet catastrophe is due to the infinite number of normal modes required to describe the field in the cavity. The number of electrons, even if macroscopical, is finite.
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you for your explanation, it made everything more clear. What our professor actually told us is that the electrons oscillate because they receive the radiation, and then they re-emit radiation at the same frequency, so modeling them as harmonic oscillators and looking for their average energy is the same as looking for the average energy of the normal modes. Or at least, this is what I understood. However, it seems to me from your answer and from the comments that we are actually directly modeling the EM waves (in terms of normal modes) as harmonic oscillators which makes even more sense $\endgroup$
    – Fede
    Commented Apr 17, 2023 at 6:35

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