Here's an interesting "proof" that there is no such thing as magnetism. I know the answer but I love this so much I had to ask it here. It's a great way to confuse people!
As we all know, $$\nabla \cdot\vec{B} =0$$ Using the divergence theorem, we find $$ \iint_S \vec{B} \cdot \hat{n} \, dS = \iiint_V \nabla \cdot \vec{B} \, dV = 0$$ Since $\vec{B}$ has zero divergence, there exist a vector function $\vec{A}$ such that $$\vec{B} = \nabla \times \vec{A}$$ Combining the last two equations, we get $$\iint_S \hat{n} \cdot \nabla \times \vec{A} \, dS = 0$$ Applying Stokes' theorem, we find $$\oint_C \vec{A} \cdot \hat{t} \, ds = \iint_S \hat{n} \cdot \nabla \times \vec{A} \, dS = 0$$ Therefore, $\vec{A}$ is path independent and we can write $\vec{A} = \nabla \psi$ for some scalar function $\psi$. Since the curl of the gradient of a function is zero, we arrive at: $$\vec{B} = \nabla \times \nabla \psi = 0,$$ which means that all magnetic fields are zero, but that can't be!
Can you see where we went wrong?