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Classically, the effect of the electromagnetic field on particles is often said to be given by the Lorentz force law:

$$ \vec{F} = q\vec{E} + q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}. $$

However, I'm really starting to doubt this is entirely the true equation. We know there are neutral particles such as the neutrino that have a nonzero dipole magnetic moment. If we take the above equation at face value (perhaps naively), then the fact that a neutron has $q=0$ must mean the neutron has $\vec{F} = 0$ force.

Something here is clearly wrong, because a non-uniform magnetic field imposes a force on a particle with nonzero dipole moment.

Now one can reply by saying that we can imagine the magnetic dipole as the limit of two monopoles stuck together or as a loop of electric current. I agree this works as a trick, but the issue is that a neutrino is not composed of magnetic monopoles and it does not have any electric current, so how could the Lorentz force possibly apply?

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The Lorentz force law is the characterization of how point charges interact with the electromagnetic field. It simply doesn't apply to electric or magnetic dipoles, except insofar as they can be modeled as specific arrangements of point charges.

the issue is that a neutrino is not composed of magnetic monopoles and it does not have any electric current, so how could the Lorentz force possibly apply?

Classically, the neutrino doesn't have a magnetic moment. It is predicted to acquire a small magnetic moment due to weak charged current interactions, but that is a quantum effect.

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