Suppose an object's velocity is $5 \ \text{m/s}$ at $t = 1$ seconds and $8 \ \text{m/sec}$ at $t = 2$ seconds then the acceleration here is $3 \ \text{m/sec$^2$}$ i.e at $t = 1$ seconds the acceleration is $3 \ \text{m/sec$^2$}$. This isn't instantaneous acceleration, right? It is just an acceleration over the interval from 1-2.
Now, instantaneous acceleration means the change in velocity is happening at that instant, say $v_1$, $v_2$ occur at that particular instant (I know we need $t_1$ and $t_2$ and they keep getting infinitely closer).
Suppose at $t = 1$ seconds the velocity is $15 \ \text{m/s}$ (i.e $v(1 \ \text{s}) = 15 \ \text{m/s}$) and the acceleration is $a = 10 \ \text{m/s$^2$}$ (i.e $a(1 \ \text{s}) = 10 \ \text{m/s$^2$}$). Here the acceleration $10 \text{m/s$^2$}$ happened at an instant i.e $v_1$, $v_2$ we assume happened at an instant, because thats what instantaneous means, and that the change doesn't happen over the interval. i.e it doesnt affect other points of time (say $t = 2$ seconds).
So am i right here? and
If the acceleration at every instant(i.e instantaneous acceleration at every instant being same)is constant. How will it affect the other points of time?? how is the change happening here at each instant?
I am looking for practical explanation, do not explain using kinematical equations, please explain with example. Please answer if I'm right or wrong and also the second point.