I read a book about spontaneous symmetry breaking. In the book, the author says:
Using a Fourier transformation, it's always possible to divide the Hamiltonian into two parts, one is collective part with zero wave number, or center-of-mass, the other is part with finite wave number which gives description of internal freedom. To describe the breaking of a global spontaneous symmetry, we only need to consider the collective part.
And the author gives an example:
Considering a harmonious crystal, whose Hamiltonian is:
$$H=\sum_{x,\sigma} \frac{P^{2}(x)}{2m}+\frac{1}{2}m\omega^{2}_{0}(X(x)-X(x+\sigma))^{2}$$
where $X$ and $P$ are respectively position and momentum operators.
Then the collective part of the Hamiltonian is:
$$H_{CoM}=\frac{P^{2}_{tot}}{2mN}$$
$$\text{and} $$
$$P_{tot}=\sum P(x)$$
Thus, the Hamiltonian can be divided as:
$$H=H_{CoM}+\sum_{k\neq 0}H_{int}(k)$$
So I can understand $P_{tot}$ is the center-of-mass, since this operator describes the momentum as a whole. Yet I cannot see how it's related to wave number zero, nor figure out why $k\neq 0$ is describing internal freedom.
To me, $P_{tot}$ can have eigenstates corresponding to nonzero eigenvalues, so $k$ here seems not to be the wave number proportional to whole momentum. Besides, $H$ is in general a multi-particle Hamiltonian, so $k$ seems not to be proportional to individual momentum either.
Could any body help me?