I'm reading "Okun, Leptons and quarks.", specifically subsection 13.3 "Semihadronic decays. General remarks." Okun says "The amplitude of the $\tau \rightarrow \rho \nu $ decay is related directly to that of the $ \rho \rightarrow e^+ e^-$, owing to the isotopic properties of the ud current."
I understand that we have three ud isovector currents: $\bar{u} \gamma_{\mu} (1+\gamma_5) d$, $\bar{d} \gamma_{\mu} (1+\gamma_5) u$ and $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left[\bar{u} \gamma_{\mu} (1+\gamma_5) u - \bar{d} \gamma_{\mu} (1+\gamma_5) d \right]$. But I don't understand how it's connected with electroweak interaction, if electroweak doesn't respect isospin symmetry (I mean, for example, $\bar{u}d$ current interacts with $W$ bosons and $\bar{u}u$ current interacts with $Z$ and $\gamma$ bosons. So amplitudes should be different.).
And it's only part of the problem. I understand how you can interchange $\bar{\tau} \nu_{\tau} $ with $ \bar{e} \nu_{e} $ (they're both charged currents, and GSW model allows to interchange them). But it seems that Okun then interchanges $\bar{e} \nu_{e}$ current with $\bar{e} e$. And I completely don't understand, why it is allowed. Or maybe there is some other hidden logic behind this that I don't understand.