I was recently working a problem which showed that, for a space with metric:
$ g = \begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} $
The Schwarz inequality holds $ \textit{with the inequality reversed} $:
$ \left ( v_1 \cdot v_2 \right )^2 \geq v_1^2 v_2^2 $
I was able to solve the problem with quite a bit of algebra and reasoning, but I was left feeling very unenlightened. Is there any good intuition for this? Does it have anything to do with the fact that Minkowski space is a hyperbolic geometry?
Thanks in advance!