I can understand that direct band gap semiconductor doesn't need phonon to absorb light. But in the following formula:
The optical absorption coefficient is proportional to the square of $h\nu$ in the indirect band gap and to the square root of $hv$ in the direct band gap.
Doesn't it means that optical absorption coefficient gets a larger derivative in indirect band gap than in that of the direct band gap?
Why does the direct band gap semiconductor get higher optical absorption coefficient than an indirect band gap semiconductor?