Context: The Yukawa couplings of fermions to the Higgs field are given by $$g_{f} = \sqrt{2}\frac{m_{f}}{v}.$$

Question: In his book "Modern Particle Physics", Mark Thomson writes on page 486:

Interestingly, for the top quark with $m_{t}\sim 173.5 \pm 1.0$ GeV, the Yukawa coupling is almost unity. Whilst this may be a coincidence, it is perhaps natural that the Yukawa couplings of the fermions are $\mathcal O(1)$.

I don't understand this last statement. Excluding neutrinos (whose small mass is really exceptional), if we just take electrons or muons, their Yukawa coupling is certainly NOT $\mathcal O(1)$..