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I am currently reading through Immanuel Kant: Key Concepts, edited by Dudley and Engelhard, in preparation for tackling the Prolomegna and (possibly) the Critique of Pure Reason, and I am a bit stuck on exactly how Kant thinks about cognition. Is the following a correct (albeit incomplete) sketch?

We receive through the senses a "manifold" of sensations, which is all of the sights, sounds, etc. outside of us, as well as the internal sensations (like, I guess, the sensation of having emotions or having thoughts). Without the aid of the understanding, this manifold is an incoherent blob of these sensations, such as the image in this article: https://www.mirror.co.uk/science/viral-image-unrecognisable-objects-creepy-14705067 Nevertheless, these sensations are still arranged spacio-temporally, and must be from the moment I begin having sensations. For example, I can tell in the above picture that there is a sensation of "white" and, elsewhere, a different sensation of "red," even if I have no further perception of specific objects. This suggests that I cannot acquire awareness of space from experience, since all my (outer) sensations are already bound up in it. (Is this along the lines of what Kant means when he says space is the "form of all appearances of outer sense"? - A26/B42, quoted in Key Concepts, 33) If this is so, then my awareness (=representation?) of space is presupposed by my awareness of all outer sensations, even just as they are presented as the undifferentiated manifold. Moreover, my awareness of space is independent of this latter awareness, since I can conceive of space devoid of objects/the manifold sensation. Thus my awareness of space is a priori. This awareness, in particular, is of space considered singularly, not of a space or spaces, so by its singularity it cannot be a concept (by Kant's definition of concepts as general). Therefore, awareness of space is an a priori intuition. I (or any other cognizing subject) must have this intuition within my own makeup as a cognizing subject, since I could not have gotten it any other way.

As for understanding, my comprehension gets more sketchy. As I understand it, we have concepts of specific features that objects might share (being the same color, being made of wood, being happy/sad feelings, etc.) Our understanding, by means of the rules of judgement, sorts objects under their respective categories using their sensible component. However, to do this at all we need to, I guess, "pick out" the objects from the manifold of sensation, which (I guess...) we do by the pure concepts of understanding. By pick out I mean, have an awareness that some specific set of sensations (this swatch of white, or that loud noise) belongs to a specific object. Are these concepts are a priori because otherwise we could make no sense of the manifold of sensation in order to learn them? Anyways, sorry if my language is imprecise. Kant uses a lot of the words that I would use to describe my understanding in his own technical way, so I have tried to find other ways around it while still conveying where I am shaky in my... understanding.

EDIT: I think one thing complicating my attempt to comprehend understanding is the following question: does sensibility give us objects in its own right? That is, if I am looking at two chairs, those chairs are objects of my cognition. Does sensibility itself give me the two different packets of sensations as two different objects? Or is my above belief correct in that sensibility just gives me the sensation of the visual image of both chairs together, and my understanding sorts the sensations and belonging to two different objects, namely, the different chairs?

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  • Per Kant those which make sense and those which are understandable could be said to be totally heterogeneous... Commented Jul 11 at 8:53

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The (heterogeneous) manifold of sensations originally given in what Kant calls the synopsis of sense is neither spatial nor temporal, so it's wrong to say that "these sensations are still arranged spacio-temporally, and must be from the moment I begin having sensations". Instead, sensations only have spatiality and temporality at second hand, when they are exhibited as (homogeneous) appearances in intuition, via the synthesis of apprehension in intuition. So it's only appearances/intuitions that are intrinsically spatial and temporal, not sensations; and these appearances contain both a form and a matter: their form is space and/or time, and their matter are the physical realities that correspond but are not identical with sensation.

Appearances are the indeterminate (non-conceptualized) objects of intuition, and are given by our Sensibility. However, they are not really objects in the strict sense (like the chair of your example) since they are, at this "phase" (before the intervention of the Understanding) completely devoid of any order/relation/limits/etc; Kant himself said it would look like "less than a dream". It's only after the manifold of appearances/intuitions is determined by the categories/pure concepts of the understanding that they can properly be "visualized" as objects; that is, the categories will themselves be constitutive of what we call "objects".

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  • Re. "less than a dream". Is that related to this section? : "it would be possible for a swarm of appearances to fill up our soul without experience ever being able to arise from it. But in that case all relation of cognition to objects would also disappear, since the appearances would lack connection in accordance with universal and necessary laws, and would thus be intuition without thought, but never cognition, and would therefore be as good as nothing for us." A111 Commented Jul 14 at 8:52
  • @ChrisDegnen Yes. But the exact phrase is at the end of A112: "would be nothing but a blind play of representations, i.e., less than a dream". Commented Jul 14 at 17:18

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