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Suppose person A engages in

  • not thinking anything concerning a given scenario (scenario C) by not thinking about the scenario (scenario C)

Person B can read person A's mind and respond to their thoughts (by saying things, that A can hear and react to). Or, at least, this is what person A thinks.

If person B says to person A they are (i.e., that person A is) a coward (a person that does not face one's own actions), then, will person A, be brought to do the opposite (in thought formation) and have their thought, as read from (person A's mind's) history, as relating to scenario C, be brought out (i.e., the thought forms, becoming, visible, in person A's mind) only if A has participated in scenario C via a physical or thought action (in the past, as concerning the part in the mind they are avoiding but is still a little bit present in the mind)?

Sorry for the post's complexity.

It cannot be explained in an easier manner.

Thanks.

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  • idt person B can read person A's mind? do you mean to ask whether person A reads B's mind against their will only about things they are responsible for? you could ask on another stack. i see no reason to think that A can only judge the mental content of B when B wants to hide it only if A has brought anything about
    – user67675
    Commented Oct 21, 2023 at 4:40
  • Do you mean, if B accuses A of being a coward for ignoring C, will that cause A to think of C? Commented Oct 21, 2023 at 10:43
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    Can you describe without resorting to contrafactuals like mind-reading? It is hard to know if that is essential to the situation or not. Couldn't person B simply have a correct impression of person A's mental state? Is it to do with person A avoiding situation C because they actually experienced it in the past and don't wish to think about it now? It is usually best to stick to the present, bringing the past in is needless and confuses things. If they need to do something now, mention it now. If it is done, forget about it.
    – Scott Rowe
    Commented Oct 21, 2023 at 13:07

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