Is the many worlds interpretation of quantum mechanics consistent with the big bang?

Question

I might come under critism for an incomplete understanding of quantum mechanics but as far as my knowledge of quantum mechanics the interpretation of observable behaviour in the world, as to an indeterminable nature of say the precise temporal emmision of a particle in radioactive decay and the nature of the observation of the double slit experimen, led to a conclusion that there must be a duality of waves and particle, and quantum mechanics became the explanation of these behaviours.

The many worlds interpretation as I understand it is not a stochastic explanation of these behaviours but accounts for them in a deterministic sense.

I'm asking this question in an attempt to have further understanding of quantum mechanics and this interpretation.

To me the nature of physical particles or waves they do nay have a choice of what behaviour they will exhibit however humans do or at least we think we do, however we are made up of particles or waves.

As far as i know the many worlds interpretation is an attempt to reconcile the nature of every human choice, and each world is the result of their possible choices and their outcomes, and that on the whole the universe and its many worlds accounts for every possible outcome and so on the whole these universe determines these outcomes.

The big bang theory is a theory that the universe had a beginning but is not a theory that the human race began at the beginning. It was billions of years later. So is the many worlds interpretation a temporal interpretaion that these many worlds did not come in to being until there was a choice or a consciousness able to make that choice.

So is the physical universe consistent among all these many worlds, and only differs with the possible choice of human and animal activity in each world?

These many worlds must not have happened until there was consciousness within the universe to create them if the Big Bang theory is correct?

Is my understanding of the many worlds interpretation correct?

Do these many worlds begin at the beginning because of the nature of particles/waves of the early universe?

Or until there was a perception of choice?

Answer 1

In answering this post one has first to clarify which results are confirmed by physics and which are speculations.

1. Statements about Big Bang are speculations. We do not even know whether there was a Big Bang at all. Big Bang is a limit point of present cosmology, there is no accepted theory of Big Bang. Going backwards in time we can approach but not reach Big Bang.
2. Many-worlds interpretation is one of several proposals to avoid the collapse of the wavefunction in quantum mechanics. The interpretation relies instead on a splitting of the world lines: The interaction with a quantum systems in a state of superposition splits all world lines and realizes all possibilities. The splitting is independent whether there is a human observer or not, notably it is independent from the consciousness of any observer. The pros and cons of Everett's many-worlds interpretation are controversely discussed.

Each of the two concepts, Big Bang and many-worlds interpretation, is highly speculative, already when taken individually. Hence the OP’s question seems to enter an even more speculative domain. Present science cannot answer this question.