1

My client operates a company based in the UAE and maintains several bank accounts, including one in the USA. The US bank levies various fees, such as transfer fees and monthly fees, which are available only on the bank statements without issuing any invoices or payment receipts.

Could you please advise on the correct VAT treatment for these expenses? Specifically, should these transactions be excluded from VAT filings, or should they be reported under the Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) despite the absence of invoices?

Thank you for your assistance.

Improve this question
2
  • Bank statements are sufficient evidence of fees for tax purposes. You shouldn't need separate invoices.
    – keshlam
    Commented Jun 18 at 16:41
  • 1
    If you have a client, and that client is a multinational corporation, then any issues that arise in managing that client's financial affairs are corporate accounting issues. This is the Personal Finance Stack Exchange. It seems to me that this is not an appropriate question for this site.
    – Greg Schmidt
    Commented Jun 22 at 6:38

0

Reset to default

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .