I am reading Milne's lecture notes on etale cohomology and I'm hoping someone could help me clear up some minor confusion.
Let $X$ be a nonsingular variety over an algebraically closed field $k,$ say $k=\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}$ and let $\varphi:X\to X$ be any regular map. Let $\ell$ be a prime that is coprime to $p.$
In the course of proving the Lefschetz fixed-point formula, at the end of page $148,$ Milne states the following:
"Although in the above discussion, we have identified $\mathbb{Q}_\ell$ with $\mathbb{Q}_\ell(1),$ the above theorem holds as stated without this identification. The point is that $$ H^r(X,\mathbb{Q}_\ell(s)) = H^r(X,\mathbb{Q}_\ell)\otimes \mathbb{Q}_\ell(s) $$ and $\varphi$ acts through $H^r(X,\mathbb{Q}_\ell).$ Tensoring with the one-dimensional $\mathbb{Q}_\ell$ vector space $\mathbb{Q}_\ell(s)$ doesn't change the trace."
I am confused about why the last part of this statement is true. For example, if $X = X_0 \times_{\text{Spec }\mathbb{F}_p}\text{Spec }\overline{\mathbb{F}_p}$ and $F$ is the corresponding Frobenius map, shouldn't $F$ act on $\mathbb{Q}_l(s)$ by multiplying by a factor of $p^s?$