In page 35 of the book Stochastic Integration by P. Protter, he defines a Feller process as follows:
Then he states the following theorem.
In the proof, he used the following strategy:
Next, he argues as follows:
There are two points that I don't understand. How is $Y= (Y_s)_{0\leq s \leq t}$ is cadlag? Clearly, we cannot state
$$ \lim_{n \rightarrow +\infty)} P_{t-(s+1/n)}f(X_{s+1/n})= P_{t-s}f(X_s) $$ just based on the Feller property. Also, in the next sentence, he claims that every cadlag $\mathcal F$-martingale is $\mathcal F_+$-martingale, which maybe wrong. I don't even understand why $Y$ is cadlag immediately...