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Let Y be an exponential r.v. such that $P(Y>t)=e^{-t}$ for $ t > 0$.

Compute $E[Y|Y \land t]$.

I tried with the following but is my first time that I meet a minimum on the conditional expectation, so probably will be wrong.

I did $E[Y]\mathbf 1_{\{Y \ge t\}} + Y\mathbf 1_{\{Y<t\}}$. I'm quite sure that I can't split in this way.

How should I solve it?

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  • $\begingroup$ What does $E[Y|Y \land t]$ mean? I'm puzzled with the $\land$ symbol? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2019 at 8:50
  • $\begingroup$ isn't international symbol? However $Y \land t = min(t,Y)$ $\endgroup$
    – Buddy_
    Commented Oct 10, 2019 at 9:03
  • $\begingroup$ @Alberto__ It's pretty standard in a wide variety of analysis textbooks, yes. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2019 at 9:10
  • $\begingroup$ math.stackexchange.com/q/1003513/321264 $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 7, 2023 at 11:27

1 Answer 1

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Well, you're certainly right that $Y=1_{Y\geq t} Y+1_{Y<t} Y.$ Let's argue that the second variable is $\sigma(Y\wedge t)$ measurable. To see this, note that for any $a<b$, we have $$ (1_{Y<t} Y\in[a,b))=(Y\in [a,b\wedge t))=(Y\wedge t\in [a,b\wedge t))\in \sigma(Y\wedge t),$$

which implies the desired, since the half-open intervals generate the Borel $\sigma$-algebra.

Hence, $\mathbb{E}(Y|Y\wedge t)=1_{Y<t} Y+\mathbb{E}(1_{Y\geq t} Y|Y\wedge t)$

Now, for any borel set $B\subseteq (-\infty,t),$ we note that $(Y\wedge t\in B)=(Y\in B)\subseteq (1_{Y\geq t} Y=0),$ so and if $B\subseteq [t,\infty)$, the $(Y\wedge t\in B)=(Y\geq t)=(1_{Y\geq t} Y\neq 0).$ Hence, we get for a general Borel $B$ set that $$ \mathbb{E}(1_{Y\wedge t\in B}1_{Y_t\geq t} Y)=1_{t\in B} \int_t^{\infty} ye^{-y}\textrm{d}y=\mathbb{E} \left(1_{Y\wedge t\in B} 1_{Y\wedge t=t} \int_t^{\infty} y e^{-y}\textrm{d}y\right), $$ implying that $\mathbb{E}(1_{Y\geq t}Y|Y\wedge t)=1_{Y\wedge t=t}\int_t^{\infty} y e^{-y}\textrm{d}y=1_{Y\wedge t=t}\mathbb{E}1_{Y\geq t} Y$, with the indicator function written in a way to emphasise that this variable is $\sigma(Y\wedge t)$-measurable.

So yes, your split is correct.

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  • $\begingroup$ I'd like to ask you something. 1: $(Y\wedge t\in B)=(Y\in B)\subseteq (1_{Y\geq t} Y=0),$ Here is it correct a subset and not an equal sign? 2: What do u mean with this $1_{Y\wedge t=t}$? 3 $\mathbb{E} \left(1_{Y\wedge t\in B} 1_{Y\wedge t=t} \int_t^{\infty} y e^{-y}\textrm{d}y\right)$ is it right here that there is both E() and integral? 4. $\mathbb{E}(1_{Y\wedge t\in B}1_{Y_t\geq t} Y)=\mathbb{E}(1_{Y\geq t}Y|Y\wedge t)$ right? $\endgroup$
    – Buddy_
    Commented Oct 10, 2019 at 10:50
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    $\begingroup$ It's correct that there is a subset. $B$ could, for instance be $\emptyset$. $1_{Y\wedge t=t}$ is the indicator on the event that the random variable $Y\wedge t$ assumes the value $t$. Maybe some parenthesis would have helped readability. 3: Yes, there is both an expectation and an integral. Note that the integral is simply a number. So we have some scaling of an indicator function, and we're taking its expectation. 4: No. I'm just using two things. $\tilde{X}:=\mathbb{E}(X|\mathcal{F})$ is the a.s.-unique $\mathcal{F}$-measurable r.v. such that $\mathbb{E}(1_F X)=\mathbb{E}(1_F \tilde{X})$ $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2019 at 11:16
  • $\begingroup$ for all $F\in \mathcal{F}$ and then I'm using that any $F\in \sigma(X)$ always has the form $(X\in B)$ for some Borel set $B$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 10, 2019 at 11:17

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