Consider the series expansion of $e^{-\log(1-x)} = \frac{1}{1-x}$. Using the Taylor series of $\exp(x)$ and $-\log(1-x)$, we find that
$$ 1 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \Bigg( \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \sum_{\substack{ \alpha \in \Bbb{N}_1^k \\ |\alpha| = n}} \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{\alpha_1 \cdots \alpha_k} \Bigg)x^n = 1 + x + x^2 + \cdots, $$
where $\alpha = (\alpha_1, \cdots, \alpha_k) \in \Bbb{N}_1^k$ is a multi-index and $|\alpha| = \alpha_1 + \cdots + \alpha_k$. Comparing both sides, we find that for any $n \geq 1$,
$$ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \sum_{\substack{ \alpha \in \Bbb{N}_1^k \\ |\alpha| = n}} \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{\alpha_1 \cdots \alpha_k} = 1. $$
Is there any known combinatorial or probabilistic interpretation on it?
We may think of this as a discrete distribution which assigns the probability $p(\alpha) = \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{\alpha_1 \cdots \alpha_k}$ to each $\alpha \in \Bbb{N}_1^k$ with $|\alpha| = n$, but I see no clear interpretation of this probability (if we have any).