As the title states, I'm not sure how to prove $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \arctan\left(\frac{1}{F_n}\right) \arctan\left(\frac{1}{F_{n+1}}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$ where $F_n$ representes the $n$-th fibonacci number ($F_1=1, F_2=1, F_3=2$, etc).
This question comes from an Instagram post and WolframAlpha numerically verifies the series converges to $\frac{\pi^2}{8}$ for at least $60$ decimal points. I have seen several infinite series involving arctangent and Fibonacci numbers that end up in a telescoping sum through arctangent angle addition/subtraction identities, but I'm not sure how to approach this series with the product of two arctangent functions. I'm looking for a solution that doesn't rely on knowing the series converges to $\frac{\pi^2}{8}$.