Let $\underline{X}$ ~ Be(p) of size n. Obtain UMVUE for p.
My idea is the MLE of that problem is the UMVUE but i think its wrong. Can someone help me?
Let $\underline{X}$ ~ Be(p) of size n. Obtain UMVUE for p.
My idea is the MLE of that problem is the UMVUE but i think its wrong. Can someone help me?
There are several ways to show that $T=\overline{X}_n$ is the UMVUE for $p$
This is one; I chose this because it allow us to do further considerations about that important estimator:
$$\mathbb{E}[\overline{X}_n]=p$$
Thus $T$ is unbiased and its variance is
$$\mathbb{V}[\overline{X}_n]=\frac{p(1-p)}{n}$$
Now let's calculate the lower bound for the variance of unbiased estimator for $p$ using Cramér-Rao inequality;
$$\mathbb{V}[T]\geq \frac{1}{-n\mathbb{E}\left\{\frac{\partial^2}{\partial p^2}\log f(x|p) \right\}}=\dots=\frac{p(1-p)}{n}$$
Thus $T=\overline{X}_n$ is UMVUE for $p$ AND its variance also attains the Cramér Rao lower bound....and this does not happen so frequently among UMVU Estimators
here are the calculations for CR lower bound, as requested.
$$f=p^x(1-p)^{1-x}$$
$$\log f=x\log p+(1-x)\log(1-p)$$
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial p}\log f=\frac{x}{p}-\frac{1-x}{1-p}$$
$$\frac{\partial^2}{\partial p^2}\log f=-\frac{x}{p^2}+\frac{1-x}{(1-p)^2}$$
Now observe that $\mathbb{E}[X]=p$ and $\mathbb{E}[1-X]=1-p$ thus substitute and immediately conclude