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How would I show that the sequence $\{\cos(\frac{n\pi}{2}))\}$ diverges using an even/odd argument? So, here's what I have so far: \

Suppose $\{\cos(\frac{n\pi}{2}))\}$ converges to $L \geq 0$. Choose $\epsilon = 1/2$. Then, $\exists N$ such that $\forall n > N$ and $n \equiv 2 \pmod 4 $ we get $\lvert -1-L \rvert = 1+L \geq 1 > 1/2$ which means it can't converge to $L \geq 0$.
Suppose $\{\cos(\frac{n\pi}{2}))\}$ converges to $L < 0$. Choose $\epsilon = 1/2$. Then, $\exists N$ such that $\forall n > N$ and $n \equiv 0 \pmod 4 $ we get $\lvert 1-L \rvert = 1+\lvert L \rvert >1 > 1/2$ which means it can't converge to $L < 0$.

Now, since $\cos(\frac{n\pi}{2})$ takes on values $1,0,-1,0$ based on $n = 1,2,3,4 ...$ , do I need to show for the case where $n \equiv 1,3 \pmod 4$? I feel that I am missing something in this proof.

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  • $\begingroup$ What Oria answered. Although I didn't study your query line by line, it looks very much like you know what you are doing. However, your approach was to go back to the basic definition(s). Oria's approach is to use intermediate results, such as a convergent sequence can't have more than 1 limit point, to greatly simplify the answer. There is a middle ground to tread between building on previous results on the one hand, and not using a steam roller to crush a fly on the other. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 5, 2020 at 2:08
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    $\begingroup$ I totally agree. this result is a very basic and important tool when it comes to solving problems such as this. if you're not familiar with it, I suggest you read more on it here: ma.huji.ac.il/~razk/iWeb/My_Site/Teaching_files/Chapter3_3.pdf $\endgroup$
    – Oria
    Commented Oct 5, 2020 at 3:11

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I would show divergence by stating two different subsequences that converge to different limits, which implies that the original sequence diverges. formally, if

$a_{n}=\cos \frac{\pi n}{2}$

so take $\left\{ a_{4k}\right\} _{k=1}^{\infty}$ and $\left\{ a_{4k+2}\right\} _{k=1}^{\infty}$ which converge to 1 and -1 respectively

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Alternatively, it isn't Cauchy. In particular, for any $N$, let $m=4N, n=4N+2$. Then $n,m\ge N$ and $|a_n-a_m|=|-1-1|=2$.

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