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I am in the middle of a problem and having trouble integrating the following integral:

$$\int_{-1}^1\frac1{(1+x^2)^2}\mathrm dx$$

I tried doing partial fractions and got:

$$1=A(1+x^2)+B(1+x^2)$$

I have no clue how to solve this since it is obvious there is no way to cancel out either $A$ or $B$ to get the other variable. Please guide me.

Thank you.

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    $\begingroup$ Partial fractions doesn't work when the two factors are the same; the expression is already simplified. Have you tried trig substitution? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 29, 2011 at 21:19
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    $\begingroup$ Forget about where your book says you should use it. Understand why trig substitution works in the situations where it does, and what identities it takes advantage of, and you'll see how to use it here. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 29, 2011 at 21:29
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    $\begingroup$ Whenever I see $1+x^2$ in an integral I think of substituting $x=\tan \theta$. Doesn't always work... $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 29, 2011 at 21:31
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    $\begingroup$ @Virtuoso: Of course you know how to integrate $1/(1+x^2)$. But temporarily pretend you don't, and try to integrate it by parts, using $du=dx$ and $v=1/(1+x^2)$. Something nice will happen. (But probably you will find trig substitution more natural!) $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 29, 2011 at 21:32
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    $\begingroup$ @Ross: ...but whenever it does, the problem vastly simplifies. :) Yet another way of going about it if one insists on doing a partial fraction decomposition would be to consider $x^2+1=(x+i)(x-i)$... $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2011 at 0:07

10 Answers 10

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Try making a substitution $x=\tan u$. Notice then that $$ (1+x^2)^2=(1+\tan^2 u)^2=(\sec^2 u)^2=\sec^4 u $$ and $$ dx=\sec^2 u\ du $$ So the indefinite integral is now $$ \int\frac{1}{\sec^2 u}du=\int\cos^2 u\ du. $$

This new integrand should be easier to integrate. Just remember to change your limits to get the proper evaluation.

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  • $\begingroup$ do you have any sort of thoery/reference on why you are allowed to do this? i didn't learn how to do it this way. $\endgroup$
    – user7814
    Commented Apr 29, 2011 at 21:40
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    $\begingroup$ It's simply a $u$-substitution. You say you have already learned trig substitution, and this is just an application of it. The wikipedia page might be helpful, but this is one of the standard methods taught in any Calc 1 class. $\endgroup$
    – yunone
    Commented Apr 29, 2011 at 21:43
  • $\begingroup$ I'd say it's been in Calc 2 in all of my experiences. $\endgroup$
    – GeoffDS
    Commented Apr 30, 2011 at 1:37
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    $\begingroup$ @Virtuoso: Well written notes on trig substitution can be found at math.stackexchange.com/questions/60444/… $\endgroup$
    – JavaMan
    Commented Aug 31, 2011 at 19:05
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The integrand is already a partial fraction, as pointed out by Qiaochu Yuan.


If we add and subtract $x^2$ in the numerator, we can integrate the first integral immediately

$$\begin{eqnarray*} \int \frac{1}{\left( 1+x^{2}\right) ^{2}}dx &=&\int \frac{1}{1+x^{2}}dx-\int \frac{x^{2}}{\left( 1+x^{2}\right) ^{2}}dx \\ &=&\arctan x-\int x\frac{x}{\left( 1+x^{2}\right) ^{2}}dx \end{eqnarray*}$$

and the second integral by parts:

$$\begin{eqnarray*} \int x\frac{x}{\left( 1+x^{2}\right) ^{2}}dx &=&x\left( -\frac{1}{2\left( 1+x^{2}\right) }\right) +\int \frac{1}{2\left( 1+x^{2}\right) }dx \\ &=&-\frac{x}{2\left( 1+x^{2}\right) }+\frac{1}{2}\arctan x. \end{eqnarray*}$$


Added: by applying this method $n-1$ times, we can reduce the integration of the function $f(x)=\dfrac{1}{\left( 1+x^{2}\right) ^{n}}$ to the integration of $\dfrac{1}{1+x^{2}}.$

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    $\begingroup$ Nice algorithm for solving this integral. $\endgroup$
    – Pedro
    Commented Apr 28, 2012 at 18:48
  • $\begingroup$ @PeterTamaroff Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 28, 2012 at 20:09
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If want to solve the integral using partial integration (as indicated in the question), you can break the degeneracy of the root of the polynomial in the denominator which hinders you from applying partial fraction expansion. I.e., you write the more general integral $$\int_{-1}^1 \frac{dx}{(1+x^2)(a^2+x^2)}$$ and obtain the result which you want by sending $a\to 1$ in the end. As you want to integral $x$ from -1 to 1 you should keep $a>1$ and send it to 1 from above.

Using partial fraction expansion $$ \frac{1}{(1+x^2)(a^2+x^2)} = \frac1{(a^2-1)}\left[\frac1{(1+x^2)} - \frac1{(a^2 +x^2)}\right]$$ you can reduce it onto more elementary integrals which you can compute easily. The result reads $$\int_{-1}^1 \frac{dx}{(1+x^2)(a^2+x^2)} = \frac{\arctan(x)-\arctan(x/a)/a }{a^2-1}\Bigr|_{x=-1}^1 \,.$$ Sending $a\to 1$, you obtain (with de l'Hôpital) the result.

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  • $\begingroup$ Pretty! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2011 at 0:28
  • $\begingroup$ @user6312: thank you... $\endgroup$
    – Fabian
    Commented Apr 30, 2011 at 10:59
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Another approach to this one is differentiation under the integral sign.

Hint:

If you let $$I(a) = \int_{-1}^1\frac{1}{a+x^2}\mathrm d x,$$ then the value that you want to compute is $$\left. -\frac{\partial}{\partial a} I(a)\right|_{a=1}.$$

Now, $I(a)$ can be calculated using the substitution $x=\sqrt{a} \tan \theta$, as mentioned in the comments.

EDIT: Note that like in Américo Tavares' answer, this readily generalises to higher powers of the integrand, just by differentiating repeatedly, and being careful about signs.

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Hint:

On this page, you find the reduction formula $$\int \frac{dx}{(x^2 +m^2)^k} = x\frac1{2 m^2 (k-1) (x^2 +m^2)^{k-1}}+ \frac{2k-3}{2m^2 (k-1)} \int \frac{dx}{(x^2 + m^2)^{k-1}}$$ which you can use for your integral...

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$$\frac{1}{(1+x^2)^2} = \left(\frac{1}{1+x^2}-\frac{x^2}{(1+x^2)^2}\right)= \left(\frac{1}{1+x^2}+\frac x2\left(\frac{1}{ 1+x^2 }\right)'\right)$$$$=\left(\frac{1}{1+x^2}+\left(\frac 12 \frac {x}{1+x^2}\right)'-\frac 12 \frac {1}{1+x^2}\right) = \frac 12 \left(\arctan x+\frac{x}{1+x^2}\right)'.$$

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Put $x=\tan \theta$. This will give you $$\int \cos^2\theta\ d\theta $$ Hope you can solve it now.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much , I would've never thought about that substition ! $\endgroup$
    – Victor
    Commented May 14, 2014 at 12:09
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You can use by parts to express $\int\frac{dx}{1+x^2}$, whose closed form you know, in terms of your unknown integral and treat it like an equation. Set

$u'=1$,$u=x$,$v=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$,$v'=-\frac{2x}{(1+x^2)^2}$

and you get

$\int\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=\frac{x}{1+x^2}+2\ln{|1+x^2|}-2\int\frac{1}{(1+x^2)^2}=\arctan{x}$

and then solve for your integral.

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$$ \begin{aligned} \int \frac{1}{\left(1+x^{2}\right)^{2}} d x\stackrel{IBP}{=} &-\frac{1}{2} \int \frac{1}{x} d\left(\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}\right) \\=&-\frac{1}{2 x\left(1+x^{2}\right)}+\frac{1}{2} \int\left(\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}-\frac{1}{x^{2}}\right) d x \\=&-\frac{1}{2 x\left(1+x^{2}\right)}+\frac{1}{2} \tan ^{-1} x+\frac{1}{2 x}+C\\ =&\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{x}{1+x^{2}}+\tan ^{-1} x\right)+C \end{aligned} $$

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$$\dfrac{d(x(x^2+a^2)^m)}{dx}=(x^2+a^2)^m+2m(x^2+a^2)^{m-1}(x^2+a^2-a^2)$$

Integrate both sides with respect to $x,$

$$x(x^2+a^2)^m=I(m)(1+2m)-2ma^2I(m-1)$$

where $$I(n)=\int(x^2+a^2)^n\ dx$$

Set $m=-1$

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