11
$\begingroup$

The ordered pair $\{\{a\},\{b,\emptyset \}\}$ seems to be very simple, neat, and highly intuitive ordered pair. So why Kuratowski's pairs were preferred?

$\endgroup$
23
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ My guess is because your proposed definition requires the empty set axiom. It's similar to the alternative definition $\{a,\{a,b\}\}$ which requires the regularity axiom. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24, 2019 at 0:13
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @AlbertoTakase It can be, depending on the axiomatization. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24, 2019 at 0:24
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @DonThousand, that's easy, any two equal pairs must either be both doubletons of a singleton and a doubleton, or doubletons of singletons, or could be singletons. Now with the first situation the singletons cannot be equal to the doubletons (extensionaity) so both singletons must be equal so they must have the same (first projection), same applies to second projection since they are doubletons with a constant in them that is 0. Now for the second situation we'll be having both second projections being 0, so the remainder of them must be equal. the third situation is easy to prove. $\endgroup$
    – Zuhair
    Commented Oct 24, 2019 at 0:49
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @DonThousand, to me the repetition of $a$ in Kuratowski's pair doesn't make sense, while putting a constant like $0$ would indicate the order of the projection of the pair and it makes full sense. $\endgroup$
    – Zuhair
    Commented Oct 24, 2019 at 11:27
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ As is well known, several def of ordered pair are available in set theory. The popularity of Kuratowski's one is only a "matter of fact" and not a theoretical one. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2019 at 11:25

1 Answer 1

12
$\begingroup$

This is a nice question, with a perhaps surprisingly subtle answer. Many different set-theoretic implementations of ordered pair have been proposed, especially in the early days of set theory; a good condensed history is given in Kanamori’s paper The empty set, the singleton, and the ordered pair (2003, Bulletin of Symbolic Logic; paywalled there but findable un-paywalled if you search a bit). The first proposal (well, probably equal-first with Hausdorff’s) was Norbert Wiener’s in 1914, defining $(x,y)$ as $\{\{\{x\},\emptyset\},\{\{y\}\}\}$ — similar to your proposal, but with an extra layer of brackets around $x$ and $y$, which I’ll come back to later.

Why did Kuratowski’s emerge as the standard? As discussed in this related question, the choice is to some extent an accident of history — we don’t care about the exact implementation used, so long as it satisfies some essential properties. However, proving those properties will of course depend on what theory/formalism we’re working in — so it’s not just a matter of “anything satisying those properties (in ZF) is equally good”. We have a spectrum of desiderata for any proposed implementation of pairs, from precise mathematical properties through to more context-dependent and subjective criteria:

  1. (essential) for all $x,y$, the specification of $(x,y)$ is a valid definition, i.e. specifies some uniquely existing object;
  2. (essential) for all $x,y,x',y'$, $(x,y) = (x',y')$ if and only if $x = x'$ and $y = y'$;
  3. (near-essential) for any sets $X, Y$, the product set $X \times Y = \{ (x,y) \mid x \in X,\, y \in Y\}$ exists;
  4. (important) the proofs of properties 1–3 should need only a small core fragment of the axioms of set theory, so that it works in other set theories, not just ZFC
  5. (varying with context) the definition should also work in other formalisms, not just ZFC-like first-order theories
  6. (very subjective) general aesthetics: simplicity, symmetry, etc.

Your definition is great on criteria 1–4 — you can prove 1–3 for them with just extensionality, existence of unordered pairs, and the empty set. (And it doesn’t need excluded middle; the proof can be made fully constructive.) And it’s arguably good on criterion 6 too — simpler than Wiener’s, and without the duplication of Kuratowski’s.

However, your proposal falls down on criterion 5. In the modern ZF-style set-theoretic universe, where everything is a set and any of objects can be collected together, it’s fine — but in the early days, that viewpoint wasn’t established immediately, and certainly wasn’t taken for granted until rather later. Much early set theory assumed (first informally, then formalised in systems like Russell’s theories of types) a worldview where there are objects of different types — in the simplest version, levels, with just atoms at the lowest level, then sets of atoms, then sets of sets of atoms, and so on — and a set can only collect together objects from a given type. So forming $\{b,\emptyset\}$ as in your definition is only possible when $b$ is a set — it wouldn’t be admissible if $b$ is an atom, since no sets exist the lowest level, and in particular, no empty set.

This is why Wiener’s version uses $\{\{x\},\emptyset\}$ not just $\{x,\emptyset\}$: he takes singletons to raise all the objects to the same level. That was essential in his original version (A simplification of the logic of relations, 1914, Proc. Cam. Phil. Soc.), since he was working in the typed system of Russell and Whitehead’s Principia. Later, in ZF-style theories, the typing discipline isn’t required, but all other early proposed implementations I’ve seen still follow it.

There have been later definitions which break this typing discipline, such as the definition in Scott and McCarty, Reconsidering ordered pairs (2014, Bulletin of Symbolic Logic); but such definitions are usually proposed when the authors have specific technical requirements that Kuratowski pairing is unsatisfactory (and so are other established implementations) — e.g. in the Scott–McCarty case, to provide pairs of proper classes, not just sets.

So, to summarise:

  • I think early researchers in set theory still preferred to work with notions satisfying the typing discipline of Russell-style systems, even when it was no longer formally required since they’d moved to modern ZF-style systems;
  • your definition doesn’t fit that discipline, which would explain why it wasn’t proposed in the early days;
  • in most later work, the Kuratowski implementation is completely satisfactory and there’s usually no reason to prefer anything else;
  • when people do consider other implementations, it’s for specific technical purposes.
$\endgroup$
11
  • $\begingroup$ Nice! But why it won't work when $b$ is an atom? $\endgroup$
    – Zuhair
    Commented Jan 25, 2023 at 17:38
  • $\begingroup$ @Zuhair: I’ve edit the answer to explain that a little more! The point is that $\emptyset$ is a set, so it exists at higher levels, but not at the level of atoms. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 25, 2023 at 17:45
  • $\begingroup$ Ah! I see your point now. But, isn't this a little bit artificial. We can simply pick some atom and take $\emptyset$ symbol to denote it instead of denoting the empty set. In reality with such type theories, there is no empty set in the real sense of the word, the empty set is just an arbitrarily chosen empty object and atoms are just arranged to be empty objects distinct from it. $\endgroup$
    – Zuhair
    Commented Jan 25, 2023 at 17:55
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks for your excellent answer. I would like to add one minor point. Zuhair's proposal, like Kuratowski's, has some degenerate cases which can complicate the proofs of properties 1 and 2. For example, when $a=b=\emptyset$, Zuhair's pair reduces to $\{\{\emptyset\}\}$ and one must do a more careful analysis to be sure that property 2 really holds. With Wiener's original definition, the proof is trivial because there are no degenerate cases. The pair of $a=b= \emptyset$ is $\{\{\{a\}\},\{\{b\},\emptyset\}\} = \{\{\{\emptyset\}\},\{\{\emptyset\},\emptyset\}\}$. $\endgroup$
    – MJD
    Commented Jan 26, 2023 at 14:55
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ But that aside — yes, you can tweak your definition to work in typed theories, by replacing $\emptyset$ with some arbitrary object of the same type as $x$ and $y$, in case they’re not sets. That is very similar to Hausdorff’s definition: he used $\{\{x,0\},\{y,1\}\}$, where $0$ and $1$ are arbitrary distinct objects of the type of $x$ and $y$. But then (subjectively) this arbitrary choice slightly detracts from the elegance of the definitions. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 26, 2023 at 15:47

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .