In this question I tried the approach as
since,
E[Z]=0
E[Z]=a*E[X]+b
E[X]= -b/a
V[Z]=1
V(Z)=a^2*V(X)
V(X)=1/a^2
I am stuck after this.
In this question I tried the approach as
since,
E[Z]=0
E[Z]=a*E[X]+b
E[X]= -b/a
V[Z]=1
V(Z)=a^2*V(X)
V(X)=1/a^2
I am stuck after this.
Solving for $a$,$$a=\pm\frac1{\sqrt{V(X)}}$$
then substitute to the first condition that you found. $$b = -aE[X]=\mp \frac{E[X]}{\sqrt{V(X)}}$$
I think the purpose of the exerise is to construct that
$$\pm\frac{X-E(X)}{\sqrt{V(X)}}$$ has mean $0$ and variance $1$.