Let $n \geq 2$. Let $a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n$ be $n$ integers such that $\gcd\left(a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n\right) = 1$. Prove that there exists a matrix in $\operatorname{SL}_n\left(\mathbb{Z}\right)$ whose first row is $\left(a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n\right)$.
Since the gcd of the integers $a_1,\ldots, a_n$ is $1$, there exists weights $x_i \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $a_1x_1+\cdots+ a_nx_n=1$. My two ideas are (a) to brute force construct an $n\times n$ matrix with first row $a_1,\ldots ,a_n$ and to construct the remaining rows such that the determinant is $\sum a_ix_i=1$ or (b) to use induction.
(a) (Constructive) This is tedious since once I find a way to construct the remaining $n-1$ rows to ensure that $a_1x_1$ appears in the determinant, I am not sure how to modify these $n-1$ rows to ensure that only the terms $a_ix_i$ appear in the cofactor expansion. If such a matrix exists, I'd like to see it.
(ii) (Non-constructive) If I proceed by induction then the base case $n=2$ is settled since I can choose the 2nd row to be $-x_2, x_1$ so that the determinant is $a_1x_1-a_2(-x_2)=1$. However, I'm not sure how to use the inductive hypothesis to show that if I can construct such an $n\times n$-matrix then I can construct an $\left(n+1\right) \times \left(n+1\right)$-matrix with the desired property. In particular, if the gcd $(a_1,\ldots ,a_{n+1})$ is $1$, it is not necesarry that the gcd of any $n$ of these terms is $1$, so induction may not even apply here.
How can I construct such a matrix or prove that one exists (without necessarily constructing it)?