Timeline for Variance of normalized random vector
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jul 10 at 21:17 | audit | Suggested edits | |||
Jul 10 at 21:19 | |||||
Jun 26 at 7:20 | vote | accept | fennel | ||
Jun 25 at 21:06 | answer | added | Michael | timeline score: 1 | |
Jun 25 at 19:48 | comment | added | fennel | Thanks for your answer! I got the answer as you suggested. Using $E[Y_1 + \cdots + Y_m] = 0$ and $E[Y^2_1 + \cdots + Y^2_m] = 1$ with the fact that the $Y_i$ are identically distributed allows to derive $E[Y_i] =0$ and $V[Y_i]=E[Y_i^2]=1/n$ | |
Jun 25 at 17:36 | comment | added | Michael | Strictly speaking, we should define $Y_i=0$ in the case the denominator is zero (which happens with prob 0 if $n\geq 2$ and $X_i$ has a continuous distribution). | |
Jun 25 at 17:29 | comment | added | Michael | In that case, you can get a simple answer for mean and variance. You can use symmetry to compute $E[Y_i]$ and $E[Y_i^2]$, where I define $$Y_i=\frac{X_i-\overline{X}}{||X-e_n\overline{X}||_2}$$ Notice that $\sum_{i=1}^nY_i$ and $\sum_{i=1}^nY_i^2$ are nice. | |
Jun 25 at 15:27 | comment | added | fennel | @Michael Sorry for the ambiguity. $e_n$ is the $n \times 1$ vector whose entries are all 1. | |
Jun 25 at 15:26 | history | edited | fennel | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Jun 25 at 15:17 | comment | added | Michael | What is the $e_n$? | |
Jun 25 at 14:49 | history | edited | fennel | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 11 characters in body
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Jun 25 at 14:36 | history | asked | fennel | CC BY-SA 4.0 |